[QUOTE=Mr2001]
Sure, but reducing the value of someone else’s property isn’t the same as theft. If I discover a flaw in the new Honda Accord and post about it on the internet, that will lower the value of Accords and make it harder for dealers and owners to sell them at a price they’d like, but I haven’t stolen anything.
In fact, the value of any property is reduced as it becomes more widely available. For example, spices that we can buy at the supermarket for a couple bucks today cost a fortune hundreds of years ago. If someone had bought a warehouse full of (nonperishable) spice in 1600 as an investment, his descendants would be pretty unhappy to see that its value had dropped so much, but the people who developed the infrastructure to make spices widely available aren’t thieves because of it. The same goes for De Beers’ diamond monopoly: if diamonds were no longer kept artificially scarce, the value of everyone’s diamonds would drop, but that’s just the market at work.
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In criminal law and morality, what you did and why you did it are highly relevant. What then occurred as a consequence is only one element for consideration. I could run over your cat in my car in circumstances in which I was utterly without blame. I could run over your cat on purpose and be guilty of a crime.
Your analogies mean nothing because the only element they have in common with Polycarp’s scenario is the loss of value, yet the immorality of his scenario lies not just in the loss of value but in loss of value due to property right infringement.
[QUOTE=Mr2001]
Mm, I don’t think so. You still have rights even when they’re being infringed.
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That you may have a right to take certain actions after your property has been stolen, doesn’t mean you still have the property. You still have rights to your car after it has been stolen. Does that mean it hasn’t been stolen?
Like I sai: to say that you still have the exclusive right to copy something, after someone else has copied that thing, is a highly debatable proposition.
[QUOTE=Mr2001]
I missed that extra “not” the first time. If you put it there on purpose, I’m afraid I don’t see what you mean by it, because the OP’s position is not that infringement is moral.
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The final “not” is an error, sorry.
Well we are on the subject of property. Name an immoral act in relation to property that doesn’t involve depriving the owner of it, by taking it permanently or temporarily or by damaging it?