I’m not entirely sure how to phrase thes questions, but I hope it gets clear what I mean.
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According to Luke, Jesus was first brought to the Roman governor Pilate after his arrest. When Pilate heard that Jesus was a Galilean, he sent him to Herod Antipas to be judged. Presumably he did this because Pilate felt he had no jurisdiction over Jesus: I gather from looking at maps in my Bible edition that what is now Israel and the Palestinian territories used to be divided during the time of Christ: Judea was governed directly by the Roman governor, while the northern region of Galilee was under control of the Jewish king Herod Antipas (who happened to be in Jerusalem during the time of Jesus’s trial - presumably to celebrate Passover there). I understand that “king” in this context does not mean he was a sovereign ruler; in fact, Herod seems to have been some kind of vassal to the Roman empire. Yet I wonder why the Romas employed this strange scheme of government: In contrast to Galilee, Judea was ruled by Pilate directly, without any Jewish kings in between, yet Galilee was a Jewish king, who was, however, subject tothe Roman governor of Judea. What am I getting wrong here?
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All four gospels point out that the Jews, according to Roman law, did not have authority to put people to death without Roman approval. Yet we read about stonings of people for religious offenses all the time in the New Testament; John the Baptist was killed upon the demand of Herod’s wife and daughter without any Roamn official approving this execution. Why this discrepancy?