For this analogy to apply to the discussion in this thread, you’d have to be arguing that Trump didn’t commit genocide because strictly speaking not all of the hundreds of people he killed belonged to the same ethnic group. But your attempt to once again pretend that this is about partisanship and personal opinion rather than Trump’s actual behavior is noted.
If it helps, we can break the relevant alleged actions down as such:
1. Trump withheld aid allocated to Ukraine by Congress without sufficient justification. This happened. There is no question that this happened. And the GAO* et alia* have indicated that this rises to the level of an actual crime. There is certainly scope to debate that point in a trial setting - oh, but that would require the submission of evidence, which for some reason isn’t allowed.
2. Trump asked the Ukrainian president to investigate (or at least to announce that he was going to investigate) Joe Biden, a political rival and likely Democratic frontrunner for the 2020 election. This also definitely happened. Trump has admitted it, and the transcript released by the WH confirms it. Is it a crime? Possibly not. But it transgresses the normal law enforcement investigation protocols (i.e. to report the “corruption” concerns to the FBI) and deliberately involves a foreign power (again!) in the US electoral process. And the rationale for him doing so is extremely weak and involves quite a lot of other suspect activity at the behest of the President (see the Lev, Igor and Rudy show). Alan Dershowitz, in his correct-but-not-as-correct-as-now days, argued that corruption (and this is corruption) in the President is impeachable even if a clear crime hasn’t been committed. At the very least, it’s something that the President should speak to under oath…oh, but that would require calling him as a witness, which for some reason isn’t allowed.
3. Trump made release of the Ukraine aid conditional on the announcement of an investigation into Biden. Not explicitly stated by Trump, although Mulvaney did openly admit that there was a “quid pro quo” and the testimony of the few people who weren’t actively blocked by the White House supports that view. Is it a crime? Very likely, given that the delivery of allocated assets was being leveraged to provide a personal political benefit to Trump.
You can quibble whether 3. constitutes bribery, extortion, general malfeasance or something else, but there was at least one actual crime identified in the above list and possibly more than one.
Now add on top of that:
4. Trump and Barr refused to comply, and directed their staff members to refuse to comply, with Congressional subpoenas. Done openly, repeatedly and unapologetically. Is it a crime? Definitely. Barr prosecuted Susan McDougall for the exact same thing during the Clinton impeachment hearings. The problem is that when the law enforcement mechanism - which is this case reports directly to Barr - is fundamentally corrupt, there aren’t really many other options. But the crime was still committed.
Personally I find the argument that Trump and Barr are committing crimes to cover up the fact that Trump is innocent rather implausible, although your opinion may vary. But please - keep picking at the minutiae and I’m sure the whole case against Trump will suddenly crumble. Perhaps you could doublecheck to see if the flag in the Senate chamber has a gold fringe on it .