I have submitted my DNA to the 23andme organization a few years ago, and also (for the record) I identify as 100% homosexual (male).
According to their website, in researching 23,000 customers who voluntarily participated in research, they found no genetic markers associated with sexual orientation. Please note that the sexual orientations are all self-reported, and that these percentages are 89% mostly or exclusively heterosexual, 9% mostly or exclusively homosexual, and 2% bisexual. Unfortunately I cannot link everyone to the data because you have to be a member of 23andme to see it; if you are a member, here is the page (you may need to scroll down to see the data).
Bearing in mind the limitations of this research (voluntary participation, self-reported sexual orientation, possibly others) what does this do to the idea that sexual orientation is to some extent “built in” and not a choice, if we assume that the research is accurate?
In my opinion, this would switch the emphasis from genetic causes to such things as conditions in the womb during gestation. This could explain such observed phenomena as that later male children in large families are more likely to be homosexual, because although the genetic contributions of the parents would only change randomly from one child to the next, the conditions of the womb could be more likely to change in a predictable way from one child to the next. So, for example, a gestating child who is exposed to a very different mixture of sex hormones before birth compared to another child may have a different percentage expectation of a same-sex orientation.
In another way this finding is sort of a relief in that the likelihood of being able to purposely manipulate the sexual orientation of offspring by genetic manipulation using such tools as CRISPR, and thereby to reduce the percentage of same-sex orientation in the world, seems greatly reduced.
How do you view this data? Is it irrelevant or meaningful? If meaningful, in what way?