This being GQ, I hope you’re kidding & just very, very good at delivering a straight line.
Well that certainly explains why the divorce rate based on religion here. :rolleyes:
Tim Harfords book The Logic of Life attacked this question from an economic perspective. Some excerpts are available here.
There is a vast difference between ‘religion’ and living surrendered to the Lord Jesus. God does permit divorce because ‘your hearts were hard’ (Matt 19:8). This I believe does not refer to having a hard heart to your partner, but to God. It is selecting your partner based on what you want, not what God wants, and you and your partner reap the consequences of following your path for your life. God IMHO allows divorce, though He hates it, as part of repentance and being lead to repentance, to give us a chance to allow Him to reform our lives under Him.
THe OP was asking about a correlation between divorce rates and women’s lib, I just expanded it to other aspects that seem to have a correlation, and adding why I believe the it to be true, just as the OP did.
Feminism leads to spay and neuter? And I thought it was gonna be a boring Tuesday morning.
I don’t think “because God said so” really qualifies as a GQ answer.
O.K., please show us that there’s a statistical correlation between divorce rates and each of the following things:
> increased materialism, abortion, unloved/neglected/abused children, increased
> disorders in children such as ADHD, broken families, sexual promiscuity, lower
> sperm counts, fertility issues, even increased castration of pets . . . the
> women’s rights movement.
A statistical correlation isn’t just an “Oh, you know perfectly well what I mean” statement. It’s a set of statistics (or a chart if you prefer) showing that over a long period of time there has been a consistent correlation between one of these things and other one of them. It would be useful if you would also show that there is a regional correlation between each of these factors. That is, show us that consistently if one of these factors is high in one region, then it is also high in another region. Please be sure to cite your sources.
Well since this is the General Questions forum and not the State Your Prejudice as Fact Forum, can you provide some evidence for this claim?
It goes to trying to control something in human efforts that God has provided for. Putting self over God, and disrespecting the creation process that God has established. Trying to institute a ‘new order of things’ by manipulating others and their natural environment.
Do you take medicines when you’re sick?
FOr those who are asking for evidence, where is the evidence asked of the OP?
What was asked was a correlation between the women’s lib movement and divorce, is there any doubt in anyone’s mind that such a statistical correlation exists? That both has risen together, as that’s all that a statistical correlation means. Does anyone have any doubt that at this time these things also have similar trends such as the rise of broken families, infertility problems, reduction in the number of children, increased childhood disorders, increased abortion, increased promiscuity, increased human control over our and our pets reproductive systems, etc.
Typically not, but I have on occasion, I will usually pray about it before.
kanicbird, you’re doing exactly what I asked you not to do. Instead of giving us some statistics, you’re just saying, “Oh, you know perfectly well what I mean.” It’s not even true that the chart cited in TJVM’s post shows that there is a consistent correlation between divorce rates and women’s rights. As I said before:
> So you want to argue that divorce rates are tied strictly to women’s rights, you
> would have to claim that women’s rights increased from around the turn of the
> century to the 1940’s, decreased during the 1950’s, dramatically increased from
> 1958 to 1981, and have decreased since then.
This is the trend in divorce rates (in the U.S.) and if it’s correlated to women’s rights, you would have to show that women’s rights are going up and down in the same way. You could also show that there is a regional correlation. Show us that divorce rates and women’s rights are distributed in the U.S. in a correlated fashion.
Actually, at least one person doubts. If you read Wendell Wagner’s earlier post (#16), you’ll see that divorce rates are now dropping. Absent any evidence of increased opression of women over the last 25 years, there’s no correlation.
I’m going to avoid the interesting turn that this thread has taken and address the OP. Here’s a study that you might find helpful:
Here’s the abstract:
To sum up, there is a correlation between women working for pay and the likelihood of getting divorced. However, the correlation between marital dissatisfaction and divorce is much stronger. The authors argue that what’s really at work here is that women who work are more able to exit bad marriages than those who don’t work, and that’s what drives the correlation between labor force participation and divorce.
“The Bible says so” is not a valid political argument, kanicbird. Please to remember that “religion is the answer!” simplifies complex psychological, historical, and sociological trends to one particular interpretation of one particular sect of one particular religion.
In post 27 I wrote:
> That is, show us that consistently if one of these factors is high in one region,
> then it is also high in another region.
I meant:
> That is, show us that consistently if one of these factors is high in one region,
> then the other factor is also high in that region.
Wendell even the OP asks for something that is not directly measurable, how can one truly measure the women’s lib movement as it is a measure of not facts and figures but a measure of the hearts and minds of the people, as such any numerical trends are based on someone drawing lines on a chart and deciding what constitutes when someone is for or against it - and a issue like this spans generation, sometimes being somewhat dormant as the supporters enter different stages of their lives. About the only thing that can be measured is the megatrends a general has it increased or decreased over this multi-generational period.
So what you ask, though possible to get, would be meaningless.
If there is no possible way to measure women’s rights, then there is no possible way to measure the correlation between women’s rights and divorce rates.
I agree