I was discussing grammar with my friend tonight. Specifically the ‘it’ dilemma. He says that ‘it’s’ denotes possession (eg. it had a wart on it’s nose), as well as being an abbreviation for it is (wow, it’s fast!).
I, however, stand by the fact that ‘it’s’ only means it is, and ‘its’ (it had a wart on its nose) is used for possession. Which of us is right?
A way to remember this is that possessive pronouns don’t contain apostrophes: his, hers, theirs, ours, its. So instead of “its” being some kind of exception, it fits the pattern perfectly.
I have spent my life and career on eradicating careless errors such as the one currently under discussion, but I had always assumed that those who typed “it’s” for “its” and vice versa were more likely innocent victims of inadvertent slips of the keyboard than products of a poor grounding in English grammar. Speaker’s post, however, has proved me wrong.
This brings me to a slightly tangential (i.e. hijacking) query. Does English grammar (including spelling and punctuation) really matter anymore? Most readers know that “it’s nose” means “its nose” (or they don’t even notice the difference), but they usually let it slide. This indicates to me that the language may be changing and there’s (or theirs) nothing we can (or should) do about it. Do we really create any ambiguities or misunderstandings by writing “Your my best best friend” instead of the pedant’s correct version of “You’re…”?