Just after the Iraqi elections, MrMaisy asked if I thought Saddam Hussein had been allowed to vote. After all, he’s an Iraqi citizen and (I don’t think) he’s been convicted of any crimes yet, so he’s not a felon, and should be eligible to vote according to US laws.
But that’s not my question, because I’m pretty sure that no matter what his legal status and the new Iraqi voting laws may be, no one trotted Saddam out to the polls.
The question made me wonder how a situation like this is handled in US elections. If a person is in police custody, arrested and not yet charged, or perhaps in jail waiting for trial, is he or she allowed to vote? This assumes, of course, that the person does not have a prior felony conviction. Would this person still retain the constitutional right to vote? If so, would the police actually accompany the person to a polling place to wait in line? I can’t imagine this happening!
Maisy