I have a hard time with people debating the nuances of language in a second or third translated language but this was a post that clearly asked the responders to explore the reasoning behind a law and what their religion says about it.
And just because you can read something does not mean you can interpret it well. If that were the case then every high school student would be getting As in American Lit. Yes, Leviticus talks about punishing homosexuality by death, but that doesn’t mean we do that now (or that it was ever done in the past). It’s pointless to read and “debate” the Bible if you don’t understand any of the history. I gave a Jewish perspective, others gave a Christian perspective and so forth and so on.
I overlooked no point other than to simply poiint out your very own bias - it went downhill with you from there, as it always does.
One of the points of my questions was to show just how biased you are - no one else that I am aware of ever claimed to have ‘corrected other translations of the bible in the margins’ and has not provided some cite or other evidence of their ability to do so.
Am I to assume you have ‘real’ knowledge of the biblical languages and actual access to the ‘source’ (not concordnaces or interlinears or study aids all from the same publisher) but THE source material and the knowledge to actually translate it?
If not, then you are as bad, if not worse, than most to assume you have enough crediblity to ‘correct other translations’ and then arrogantly accuse others of bias when you disagree with them.
On your ‘main point’, as you call it, I actually agree - study it for yourself and come to your own understanding - but, if you were to be honest - you don’t really believe that - do you? If you are an Active JW, then you believe that you can only come to an ‘accurate’ understanding of the ‘bible’ (gods word) thru study with the JW - so, you just tried to sound good and lied while doing it.
We asked for your credentials, study history, etc - you pointed to that post as it - I took you at your word, or is this even more evidence of your dishonesty?
I think he meant that the “OT” was good enough for Jesus…? Does the KJV claim to be the most accurate translation when it comes to the Christian Old Testament?
Clearly I think it isn’t, but that’s my biased Jewish opinion. Even in Jesus’ time, there would have been several different translations of text. But I think the KJV is supposed to be THE version of whatever Jesus read + what was written after…if you believe in the Septuagint, of course. shrug
Its possible that I did not read the intended sarcasm into your statement - from now on, however, I will realize that you don’t ever intend to be taken seriously, that all of your posts are sarcastic and to be taken like a grain of salt, and that you will never answer an honest question put to you.
Further, when it comes to biblical topics such as this, I will recognize that you are an un-schooled individual that claims to know more than he actually does, who in fact has likely never read the bible, much less studied it outside of the prescribed doses that his organization prints for him, and who’s opinion is therefore not only incredibly biased, but is also therefore meaningliess in any real discourse on the matter.
And, for the record - there is no sarcasm in the above post - since clearly you can’t recognize it otherwise.
