Um, a nuke is more firepower than anything else. Please explain how that makes anyone more secure if we allow every non-felon to have one? :rolleyes:
The first part of the 2nd amendment defines the purpose of the right to keep and bear arms.
It further describes the militia as being necessarily “well regulated” which, I believe at the time was commonly understood to be “trained and disiplined”.
Now, at present, we have a professional standing army, which is one of the things that the founding fathers wanted to insure that we <i>didn’t</i> have. The resoning is this: A standing army in peace time is a power center from which a coup may be performed. Furthermore, if the soldier class does not think of itself as ‘of the people’ then it will be more likely to go along with a coup de’tat. So, the security of the state can be insured by militia, then there will be no need for a standing army, and thus the threat of a coup will be reduced.
At this point, we have a standing army and no militia to speak of, so clearly the 2nd has already failed to achieve it’s purpose.
Some may say that an armed population is still a hedge against tyrrany, but my response to that is </i>only in your fantasies</i> The current population of the USA coudn’t prevent a military coup, the difference in training and skill between amateurs with guns and professional soldiers is just too great at this point.
So, should we just ignore the purpose of the 2nd? I say no, it still says what it says and is still binding law of the land.
And what is says is that no restriction in gun ownership that harms the ability to form well-regulated militias is permitted.
Of course, the correlary is that any restriction that doesn’t harm the ability to form well-regulated militias is OK as far as the constitution is concerned.
Thus the recent ruling that a man could be prohibited from owning a shotgun because the weapon was ‘unsuitable for militia use’ is absolutely correct.