Define ‘exposed variable theory’. (Also, of course, saying things like ‘entanglement is a […] theory’ doesn’t help your case; entanglement is a characteristic of certain states in quantum theory, not in any sense a ‘theory’ unto itself.)
Then, they couldn’t violate Bell inequalities; but they do, so that assertion is false.
This doesn’t even make syntactic sense. Bell’s inequality applies to all theories in which the underlying state is always precisely defined, and there are no nonlocal influences. This is a strict logical inference: if both photons have a precisely defined position/momentum at all times, and they are not able to influence one another instantaneously, then they cannot violate a Bell inequality. Quantum mechanics, however, observationally violates Bell inequalities. Thus, photon pairs either cannot simultaneously have a well defined position and momentum (or any other suitable complementary observables), or they must be able to influence one another instantaneously.
If, in your theory, photon pairs always have a definite state, as they do in de Broglie’s double solution theory, then there must be nonlocal influences, again as in de Broglie’s theory.
I mean, the demonstration for this is very simple: consider two particles, A and B, and two observable properties of these particles—e.g. position and momentum—which can (for simplicity) only assume two different values (e.g. if the particle is detected in the left box, we mark a -1, if it’s in the right one, we mark a +1; if the momentum is oriented leftwards, we mark a -1, if it’s rightwards, we mark a +1—or we simply use spin measurements: spin is always found to be either +1 or -1, i.e. aligned with or aligned against the direction one measures).
So we have four observables: a[sub]1[/sub], a[sub]2[/sub], b[sub]1[/sub], and b[sub]2[/sub], where a[sub]i[/sub] refer to measurements carried out on particle A, and b[sub]i[/sub] refer to measurements on particle B, each of which can be either +1 or -1. Furthermore, because of the conservation of angular momentum (if we’re taking spin observables; otherwise, linear momentum), whenever we find particle A to have spin +1 along a particular direction, particle B will have spin -1 slong a particular direction—but that actually doesn’t strictly matter for now.
So, let’s make our measurements, that is, find out what value our four observables have. Then, consider the following quantity:
X = a[sub]1[/sub](b[sub]1[/sub] - b[sub]2[/sub]) + a[sub]2[/sub](b[sub]1[/sub] + b[sub]2[/sub])
It is not hard to see that if a[sub]1[/sub], a[sub]2[/sub], b[sub]1[/sub], and b[sub]2[/sub] have fixed values, then X can at most be two; it suffices to check these four cases:
[ul]
[li]b[sub]1[/sub] = b[sub]2[/sub] = +1: the first term vanishes, and the second one is equal to 2 if a[sub]2[/sub] = +1[/li][li]b[sub]1[/sub] = +1, b[sub]2[/sub] = -1: the second term vanishes, and the first one is equal to 2 if a[sub]1[/sub] = +1[/li][li]b[sub]1[/sub] = -1, b[sub]2[/sub] = +1: the second term vanishes, and the first one is equal to 2 if a[sub]1[/sub] = -1[/li][li]b[sub]1[/sub] = b[sub]2[/sub] = -1: the first term vanishes, and the second one is equal to 2 if a[sub]2[/sub] = -1[/li][/ul]
Slightly rearranged, we get the following:
a[sub]1[/sub]b[sub]1[/sub] + a[sub]2[/sub]b[sub]1[/sub] + a[sub]2[/sub]b[sub]2[/sub] - a[sub]1[/sub]b[sub]2[/sub] ≤ 2
This is the crucial bit: this inequality must ineluctably hold, if our observables have fixed values that cannot influence one another upon measurement; and it follows from nothing else but that. Therefore, if you say:
And:
What you are saying is that the above inequality must always hold; the statements are logically equivalent.
But if the above inequality always holds, then it also holds in the average; that is, if we denote by <a[sub]1[/sub]b[sub]1[/sub]> the result of the procedure ‘measure a[sub]1[/sub] on particle A and b[sub]1[/sub] on particle B many times, and average the result’, then the inequality
<a[sub]1[/sub]b[sub]1[/sub]> + <a[sub]2[/sub]b[sub]1[/sub]> + <a[sub]2[/sub]b[sub]2[/sub]> - <a[sub]1[/sub]b[sub]2[/sub]> ≤ 2
must likewise always hold.
But in quantum mechanics, it doesn’t! This is an experimental finding: for certain states of the two photons, the maximum observed value is 2√2 > 2. That means directly that
and
cannot both be true. If they were, we would never observe a value greater than 2. But we do.
If you disagree, please, with yes or no, answer the following questions:
[ol]
[li]In your theory, does each particle always have a definite position x = (some value) and a definite momentum p = (some value)?[/li][li]In your theory, does the position and/or momentum of one particle depend instantaneously on that of any other?[/li][li]Do you believe that in de Broglie’s double solution theory, every particle always has a definite position/momentum?[/li][li]Do you believe that in de Broglie’s souble solution theory, the position/momentum of a particle can be instantaneously influenced (via the nonlocal quantum potential) by those of other particles?[/li][/ol]
Even if you don’t see fit to answer any other part of this post, please, in the interest of honest debate, at least answer either yes or no (or perhaps, don’t know) to each of those questions.