I’ve read up a bit about the concept of objectification, especially sexual objectification, and I’m still rather confused.
What does it mean to objectify someone? What are the criteria to determine whether or not A objectifies B? What are the implications of objectification?
Objectification is nearly always used to portray an act as immoral. Is there such a thing as objectification which is not immoral?
First, let me set up a few clarifications.
Sometimes, it seems to be used in the sense of not having empathy for the other person’s feelings. Yet, when I hire a cabdriver, I do not spend any time thinking about his feelings. I think about getting from point A to point B. Does this mean that i objectify my car driver? Is this immoral?
Sometimes it’s used to mean that someone is being analyzed in a way which does not relate to their feelings and intellectual abilities. Yet when a doctor does a physical, he might as well be a mechanic inspecting a car. The doctor analyzes you in a way that does not concern itself with your feelings and intellectual abilities. Is the doctor objectifying you? If someone compares athletes in terms of their acceleration, top speed and endurance, he may as well be speaking of race cars. Is it objectifying the athletes?
Sometimes, it’s used in the sense of only thinking of someone according to one particular aspect. Yet, thinking of someone under one particular aspect is not the same as denying other aspects. For example, when people look at bodybuilding contests, they may only pay attention to the contestants’ muscles, yet it does not mean that they think those individuals, or men in general, are only good for their muscles. If a client accused of a crime comes to see me, he may only be interested in me to the extent that I can save him from prison, yet it does not mean that he denies other aspects of me. Paying attention chiefly, or even exclusively, to one aspect is not tantamount to denying other aspects of that person.
If I have a one night stand with a woman, I may only be interested in having sex with her and only want to interact with her to the extent that I get sexual pleasure out of it. Does this mean I have objectified her? If she is only interested in having sex with me and only wants to interact with me to the extent that she gets sexual pleasure out of it, has she objectified me?
What if I do the same with a man?
If I see a woman and find her attractive but do not go further than that, have I objectified her? If a man looks at me and finds me attractive but does not go further than that, has he objectified me?
Sometimes, it seems inspired by a lacking understanding of Kantian morality. Most people who know a little about Kant remember the rule about “not treating someone as a means” which has a direct equivalent in “not treating someone as an object”. Yet that conception of Kantian morality is lacking. The expression “treating someone as a means” can mean “treating someone as a means among other things” or “treating someone merely as a means”, the distinction being whether is “merely” or “among other things”. Whenever we cooperate or contract with someone to get something other than the interaction, we treat the other person as a means. For example, when I hire a cabdriver, I am treating the cabdrivers as a means of getting from point A to point B. If I could get the same result by hiring a robot driver, I would.
Yet I am not treating the cabdriver merely as a means because I also treat him as an end. Only an end in itself can engage in autodetermination (deciding for itself what it will do) so as long as I act accordingly with the acknowledgement of the importance of letting the other person engage in autodetermination, I am letting him act as an end in itself, which means that I have treated him as both a means and an end. This is the case even if I have no empathy for my cabdriver or if the contract is more to my advantage than his or if I do not wish to learn anything about him beyond his ability and willingness to drive me from point A to point B.
To rape someone or make them into a slave, that would be reducing them to a mere means/mere object. As long as I let the other person engage in autodetermination, I have not reduced the other person to an object because if I really did think of and treat the other person as a mere object, letting him/her engage in autodetermination would be as ridiculous a notion as letting my desk engage in autodetermination. If I let them engage in autodetermination, I am not reducing them to an object.
When people start using arguments which seem like special pleading or do not stand up to scrutiny, I’ve found that it’s usually because they feel something or they have a particular concern but are fearful that if they talk about how it makes them feel or their emotional concern, they will not be taken seriously. So instead they start using some very cognitive and philosophical sounding terms like “objectification” when in fact, that’s just post hoc rationalization for a position which is reached because of their emotional concerns.
What are those concerns?