FriarTed my point was not if it was forever or just a very long time, it was a noticable difference between the text of Satan and Co. and the people not in the Book of Life.
In Satan and Company’s case they will be tormented for that time period (either ages of ages or forever). In the case of those not in God’s Book of Life it is the smoke of their torment that goes up for that period of time. There is a difference in wording that appears unneeded if the fate of both were equal.
I think there’s a qualitative difference between being wary of someone because of their actions (the course Christ recommends), and assigning a punishment to someone based on their actions (what God says he reserves for himself), and it is only the latter that I would really consider “judging”. It is this latter role that one assumes when saying Stalin and Hitler are/should be in Hell.
No, I still think he’s saying “don’t judge. Be discerning, but don’t presume to dole out punishment”. Also, as he’s supposed to *be *God (in most views), I think he gets to do all the judging he wants.
God is in control, and if God allows it it is God’s will. This does not mean that there is not evil, and does not mean that there are no forces opposing God.
I disagree with this, it is more restrictive in these cases, not less. The limits have been defined on both sides and we should strive to hit the very narrow mark between the 2 lines drawn. To miss is to sin, which literally means ‘to miss the mark’
Now lets jump off the homosexual bandwagon for a bit. The above states that Christ became a sinner. It may have well said that Jesus was a murderer or thief. If this is true then Christ did not overcome the world, God, the Father, would not have raised Jesus from the dead. Jesus’ death would have been justified. Satan would have clear title on the world, no salvation would be possible. Game over.
Of if the Father did raise Jesus from the dead, He violated his own order of righteousness.
Actually, it does no such thing. Leviticus and Paul each condemned homosexual actions, but neither condemned homosexual orientation. To “become gay” is not to engage in particular behavior, but to have one’s orientation changed.
(This, of course, is overlooking the fact that you appear to have misread the actual words. The intent of the statements was that the person should perceive others as of different race or sexual orientation, not that Jesus, himself, would physically change. But “changing to gay” does not, in and of itself, make Jesus a sinner in any event.)
Jesus could have had homosexual temptations, I could accept that. The behavior of homosexual sex, or for that matter premarital sex, which by definition homosexual sex would fall into is a sin, as such Jesus never could have done that.
I think this is the part where the confusion comes in.
The linked page wasn’t attempting to portray Jesus as coming back as a sinner, per se (though, I don’t think that would necessarily be a problem). In the context of the other examples it listed, I don’t think it’s fair to deduce that Jesus would be a sinner if he returned as a homosexual, as it wouldn’t be fair to deduce that Jesus would be a sinner if he returned as a black woman.
As tomndebb mentioned, it’s primarily a perception thing.
LilShieste
I personally don’t like the use of the word homosexual (or gay) to refer to a person directly as I do see that act as a sin, and I want to think of the person as a person, saying that a person is a homosexual is to me calling them a sinner. Yes we all are sinners, and in that sense it is appropriate if it was taken as that.
I much prefer the term homosexual orientation, this does not indicate a sin, but a temptation for a particular type of sin. We all have our own temptations and Satan exploits our weaknesses as God can use our strengths.
If Jesus was someone with homosexuality orientation, as I pointed out above, I could accept it. I don’t see where being a black woman is listed as a sin so I don’t know why you brought it up.
Is it your contention that Jesus could have sinned (without the world literally going to hell in a handbasket)
My theology is a bit rusty, but I’m a bit dubious that Jesus being free of sin and perfect is universally accepted. It would certainly seem to abstract the humanity, which to many Christians defeats the purpose.
Well, hardly anything is universally accepted, but it’s standard Christian belief that Jesus did not sin, the classic “proof text” for this being Hebrews 4:15:
“For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been tempted in every way, just as we are—yet was without sin.”
(the previous verse makes it clear that the “high priest” is Jesus)
While I disagree with your position, I see where you’re coming from.
I only brought it up because it was alluded to in the link.
The writer of this article (for lack of a better word), is assuming that one has as much control over sexual orientation as they do over their race or gender. This is why I didn’t interpret “Christ becomes gay” as an implication of sin - it was equated with the other two traits, which are (obviously) not sins.
So, to re-iterate what I said earlier in this post: I see where you’re coming from. The main reason I disagree, is based on my belief that sexual orientation is not a sin (i.e., a choice), but an immutable trait.
That’s correct - it’s exactly like elucidator explained. That’s a whole 'nother discussion, though.
LilShieste
I had read the text which I had linked to this way: if we’re all made in God’s image, then we may imagine God to look like us and feel the way we do, no matter our color, race, gender, sexual orientation, etc.