Why do you need all this to happen between '02 and '06? I’m talking about the root causes here.
Banks were not forced to make the loans but they were forced to be CRA compliant in order to, as you said, merge like crazy. This is basically the same thing…in order for the banks to operate as they want, they must be CRA compliant or they cannot expand:
I think you fail to understand that these are two separate issues, one caused in part by the other, that both contributed to the mortgage meltdown.
Sure…here ya go (warning pdf file)
http://www.huduser.org/Publications/PDF/gse.pdf
Do you know the answer already or are you asking me? Here is information from Fannie Mae on it’s losses from subprime and Alt-A loans. Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac did not list the percentage of their portfolio that was subprime but 85% of their losses came from this:
http://www.fanniemae.com/media/pdf/newsreleases/2008_Q2_10Q_Investor_Summary.pdf
Unlike you I am not trying to pin this on a political party. I’m pointing out that government is the problem. Even the best intentions can have disastrous effects.
See the above link. Fannie Mae did not disclose how many loans fell under it’s subprime or Alt-A categories so I don’t know that the question can be answered definitively.
Fannie and Freddlie did not originate loans and, therefore, do not have lending standards per se. I thought you knew this. Nonetheless, Fannie and Freddie were not diligent in making sure the loans they purchased were sound. Read about it here:
Conforming standards? You are living the past. The market was created by Fannie and Freddie. They were buying loans that did not meet their standards. Were they hoodwinked? No, they didn’t bother to make sure the loans met their standards.
LOL