No, it does not. Time in this universe is unidirectional, at least for meatbags, and humans have always known that. All time only extends to the present, by definition.
They haven’t begun to redefine it, it has always been defined that way.
For example from a basic Google search we find:
1895 “it is the first duty of those women who combat for right and liberty to unite in the fight against religious obscurity, against the powers of darkness and the suppression resting on the Church, that revolution of the mind for which the most elevated thinkers of all time have suffered…”
1869 “Against undertakings of this kind the voice of nature, the experience of all time, and in all nations, savage as well as civilised, raise their decided protest.”
1895 “The efforts made by such heads to prove and display the unity of history have resulted in just what he longed for; short treatises on general history which fix with sufficient accuracy the real landmarks of all time”
1899 “THE Merchant of Venice,” by its very title, claims connection with industrial
life. It presents the problems of industrial morality and the solution of these problems, as viewed by one of the greatest intellects of all time."
1858: “David Garrick, who exalted the Drama to the highest reach of fame—the greatest actor of all time, before or since… is honoured with a public funeral…”
And so on and so forth. It is quite clear that by the end of the last century, at the very latest, “of all time” meant “up to this point in time”. Unless you wish to argue that “the experience of all time” and the historical landmarks of all time, including the future, have already been laid out. IOW to adopt your position requires that an author in 1895 thought that humanity would cease having experiences after that date and that their would e no more historical landmarks.
I think that I know what *might *be confusing you. There is a passage in the Bible that refers to the wisdom of God as being “of all time”. Not the greatest of all time, just “of all time”. That usage of “of” was archaic 150 years ago and means “pertains to” or “is relevant to”. Hence the wisdom of God “is relevant to all time”. Even here it definitely does not mean “insurpassable record”. It is possible that you have seen this passage somewhere, or a paraphrasing of it, and got the wrong end of the stick.
But if you can find any references to support your contention that “all time” means insurpassable record then please provide it. Because I have provided my reference to the contrary.
I wish my access to the OED wasn’t down for some reason. We could resolve this in minutes.