It seems to be common wisdom that there are anti-crossdressing laws in some areas of the US, but that if anyone were to be prosecuted under any of those laws, the law would almost certainly be struck down as not relating to a compelling government interest (assuming they get a good lawyer).
When was the last time someone was successfully prosecuted for crossdressing? I’m more interested in the US, but if you know anything about it in other countries, feel free to post.
In no way am I asking for legal advice - this is a question of history.
This question involves cases where the gravamen of the offense was crossdressing - not convictions where the offender committed a crime like murder or robbery while they happened to be crossdressing, or cases where a crime was perpetrated against a crossdresser.
I’d be interested to see the actual text of the law you referenced as the brief quote of “not becoming to his or her sex” appears so vague as to be useless (in my most assuredly non-lawyerly and non-US opinion).
Couldn’t that wording be used to prosecute a woman wearing pants? How about a man in a kilt? Or a woman wearing an “indecently” short skirt… couldn’t that be considered “not becoming” to her sex?
Obscenity and indecency laws pretty much have to be written that way, since there’s no way to enumerate every single possible way that something can be considered indecent or obscene. The legislators generally leave it up to the judiciary to interpret the law.
Would the different standards for indecent exposure count as a crossdressing violation? A women could get arrested for going topless in public when a men wouldn’t.