Shoe, I’m not disputing that the authors of the NT believed that Jesus identified himself as the Messiah, but none of them actually knew the guy and that wasn’t what “Son of man” meant in first century Aramaic.
Your quotation from Isaiah is not only taken out of context, it contains a crucial mistranslation. The word translated by the KJV as “virgin” is “almah” which simply means “young woman.” It does not mean virgin (there’s a different word for virgin). It’s also clear, when read in context, that the events described were to occur during the lifetime of Isaiah, they were not a prediction of the Messiah (although Matthew certainly took it as one).
Alan, Here’s what I dug out of my storage room:
A Jewish translation of the Tanach which translates “One like a son of man” as “One like a human being.” An search of online Tanachs reveals either a translation of “human being” or “one like a man.” These are contemporary translations and they indicate that contemporary Jewish scholarship has not changed as to the meaning of SoM in Daniel.
The Five Gospels by Robert Funk and Roy Hoover contains a mini essay on pg. 75-76 as to the meaning of SoM in Hebrew and Aramaic.
A History of the Jewish People in the Time of Jesus Christ
by Emil Schürer contains commentaries on the meaning of SoM in volume II (starting on page 520) and volume III (starting on pg. 252).
I’ve seen numerous other references in my reading which identify SoM as synonymous with human or man, but they are usually just passing comments without any detail or documentation.
On preview I see you’ve posted while I was writing. I concede that Enoch seems anomolous as to application of SoM to the Messiah. Every contemporary Jewish commentary I see on this seems to believe that the Similtudes are Christian emendments, but they seem to base this more on a belief that it just sounds Christian rather than hardcore archaeological or historiographical evidence.
I’ve had some difficulty finding out if there was any messianic use of SoM during the time of Christ. (I even went to library today, but it’s kind of an obscure point of history to search for). There was obviously a lot of diversity in Jewish belief at the time, and Jewish apocalyptic beliefs of the time ae still sort of murky. I will concede that it is murky enough, and the pseudogriphia are suggestive enough, that a mystic or messianic use of the term SoM by some sects at this time can not be definitively ruled out. You may even find some Jewish scholars who would concede this, (I don’t think so, but I’m really not sure), but even so, I think that they would argue that it wasn’t the common usage of the term.
Some people think that Jesus may have come out of one of the apocalyptic sects (namely the Essenes) and theoretically he may have been using some esoteric, mystical terminology with his disciples which meant one thing to them and another to the public at large.
I have to add that IMO, this is unlikely, but that is only IMO.
I’m glad to hear that Wesley does provide a diversity of perspectives , btw. Like I said, I think it’s a good school. Obviously they’re doing a good job with you. 
Zev,
are you aware of any contemporary Jewish interpretations of the phrase “Son of Adam,” particuarly as it is used in Daniel or with regard to the Messiah?