Why do reluctant women in arranged marraiges end up perpetuating it?

I only knew that something like that created both states, that’s why Kashmir is a stickler issue between the two countries. I didn’t know it was referred to as The Partition

Sorry about “Anaamika’s ideas”. Had I taken the care to think and word it right, it would have read… “some of the notions that Anaamika has posted about.”

And, I’m not ignorant about the gender divide, nor am I denying it exists, but my original post(nor Acsenray’s IMO) should not be read as “Meh, arranged marriage isn’t a big deal”. Of course women still live more difficult lives in India. They face more pressure, and earlier, than men do on the marriage issue. All my examples were about women I know and how they’ve improved outcomes in their lives. I have made no claims that these outcomes were easily achieved, nor would I, knowing that many of them(not all) required struggle and resistance on the part of the women.

I expect it’s like Americans talking and referring to “Civil war”. And Kashmir, strictly speaking, is not a partition issue. It was not, technically, a part of British India to be divided among India and Pakistan. It was a separate ‘princely’ state, ruled by a Hindu king, with a majority Muslim population. The king was dithering about what to do with his state, Pakistan tried to force the issue using insurgents(although Pakistanis, and some historians, will say it was an indigenous revolt), and the king acceded to India.

About a third of the area we consider British India were nominally sovereign princely states. At Independence, they were required to choose between India and Pakistan. Only a couple of them resisted, including the two largest, Kashmir and Hyderabad. Kashmir acceded to India when Pakistanis invaded. India invaded Hyderabad and deposed the Nizam.

So on the one hand, it’s true that Kashmir wasn’t technically what was called “British India” at the time, it’s misleading to say that it had nothing to do with Partition. It was definitely part of the overall territory on the subcontinent being partitioned between India and Pakistan. It just failed to clearly choose one or the other.

While most of the princely states were only nominally ruled by their heads, the largest had state governments. And I’m unsure about this “Required to accede to India or Pakistan” bit. From wikipedia

ETA: Nor did I say it had nothing to do with partition. The qualifier “strictly speaking” was in there.