Why does Socrates in Plato's "The First Alcibiades" refer to the Peparethians as "ignoble Peparethians"? What made them ignoble in the eyes of the Athenians?

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1

Why does Socrates in Plato’s “The First Alcibiades” refer to the Peparethians as “ignoble Peparethians”? What made them ignoble in the eyes of the Athenians?

2

Just speculating but Peparethus was apparently known for its wine in the ancient Greek world. So Socrates may have felt the Peparethians drank to excess.

3

Note that the Greek text doesn’t have the noble Athenians/ignoble Peparithians gloss:

“εἴτε Ἀθηναίοις εἴτε Πεπαρηθίοις”
“either the Athenians or the Peparithians”

I suspect this is on the translators, to highlight the point Socrates is making, not on Plato.

4

Yes Little_Nemo. Your interpretation based on my general reading makes sense.

5

Thanks MrDibble. My translation comes from the Canterbury Classics(San Diego) anthology. The text doesn’t provide the name of the translator.