Would your opinion be the same in the case of a person who drives their car into the river with his or her newborn baby in the back - and lives?
I guess I don’t understand why murder-suicide ought to be considered an obvious “pass”.
Clearly, not guilty by reason of insanity is a possibility, as is some sort of diminished capacity defence.
To my mind, the most significant legal fact is whether the child was otherwise viable - that is, how far advanced the pregancy was. So far, for whatever reason, none of the links make it clear, though the impression given is that it was pretty advanced: I assume purely for argument’s sake that the child could have been born viably. If the pregancy was still within the range of legal abortion, no “crime” whatsoever has been committed; if the child was about to be born, the situation is really no different from infanticide generally.
However, nothing in the link posted and summarized by tumbledown struck me as particularly convincing, as follows:
While this may well be true, it strikes me as irrelevant to the basic issue - ought a woman who is close to birth be punished for an act she reasonably ought to know will kill the otherwise-viable child? It may well be she ought not to be charged under those particular laws.
This is the nub of the matter, and probably goes far to explain why this case is controversial. However, it is clearly an argument by slippery-slope. The argument goes that this case ought not to result in punishment not on its own merits, but because it will be used as a wedge to undermine the rights of pregnant women everywhere.
However bad ‘de facto criminalization of medical issues that often cannot be traced to any particular precipitating event/circumstance’ may be (and it is pretty bad, admittedly), this is not the facts of this case.
Post-incident remorse and “protective” feelings towards the alleged victim strikes me as a relevant factor for sentencing, not guilt.