Hi Straight Dope,
I’ve been wondering about this for a while now. It’s probably a dumb question, but I just had to know.
I speak Hebrew and Spanish, at a reasonably advanced level–not perfectly, though.
In my conversations with other speakers of these languages I often mess up masculine and feminine agreement, and am corrected. For example,
“sangre rojo” instead of “la sangre roja”
“fantasma espantosa” instead of “fantasma espantoso.”
Or in Hebrew, sometimes I mess up with words like “shanah” (year) which is a feminine word with a masculine plural ending “shanim.” I would say “shanot” instead, which is incorrect. (And don’t even get me started on Hebrew numbers, which can be very challenging. I mess them up all the time.)
My question to you all is threefold:
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Do native speakers of these languages (and others with similar grammatical rules) ever mess up masculine/feminine agreement?
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If not, would it be a similar parallel to asking native English speakers if they ever make mistakes like “I is happy” or “They was sad,” which really doesn’t happen often at all?
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How serious are errors like these taken if you are trying to converse with a native speaker? Do mistakes of this fashion imply poor education? If a native speaker himself/herself made an agreement mistake in a group of native speaking friends, how would they react?
Thanks,
Dave