I have 2 kids with my first wife.
One of them lives with me, in Pennsylvania, and the other lives with her in California.
I have been paying child support from the moment I moved out, and have never missed a payment. I want to make that clear. I am the furthest thing from a deadbeat dad.
When I left, we agreed to a certain amount of child support.
2 years ago, when my son chose to move in with me in PA, we agreed to reduce that amount by 25% (I didn’t go half, as I figured she was more likely to let him come here without a fight if I wasn’t hitting her in her purse).
I also stated at the time that I didn’t want any support from her. I have stood by that statement, and have not asked her for a dime for glasses, clothes, school expenses, etc.
I am now in the process of looking into reducing the child support again.
She has since remarried, and in fact has another kid with her husband (nice guy, very happy for them both).
AS I have one kid, and she has one kid, I thought it would be fair if we just dropped it and called it even.
I am aware that California and Pennsylvania both have formula’s that are used in these situations, and am looking into what sort of numbers either would come up with.
So my question is 2 part:
1- What are the odds of getting a court to “call it even” with each of us having one of the kids, and nobody owing anybody support?
2- Will the courts, if it goes to that, go by the formulary, even if we have both pre-agreed on a number that is not generated by their formula?
Thanks in advance (I know, you are not my lawyer, I am not your client, etc. etc.) legal eagle Dopers!