I came across an intriguing article* the other day. The basic thesis is that many of the African AIDS cases are actually traditional diseases not related to HIV at all.
The way the medical community traditionally defines AIDS is by correlating some 30-odd diseases found in conjunction with HIV. However, to diagnose AIDS in Africa, no HIV test is needed. It is the presence of the symptoms only that determines whether AIDS is the diagnosis.
The author contends that the CDC wanted to esablish a diagnostic definition of AIDS to be used in poor countries that lacked the equipment, funding, and field personnel to do blood tests.
Makes sense, I guess. But does that not just create a jumbled mess where the numbers are so suspect as to be invalid?
The diagnosis for AIDS (with no HIV test) then rests upon such symptoms as prolonged fevers, significant weight loss, and prolonged diarrhea. Well, a lot of things in Africa (parasites, TB, malaria, bacterial and other infections, dysentery, etc…) can cause all that with nary an HIV case to be found.
Another point the author makes is that even when an AIDS test is used (mostly in South Africa), false positives are common with conditions not related to HIV (it seems that the particular test is not all that reliable, and follow-up confirmation tests are all but non-existent). But the results are extrapolated across the continent.
This, in adittion to all the cases being tallied as described above, leave us pretty much in the dark when it comes to the actual spread of AIDS across Africa, unless “Gee, it seems like a lot” is a valid census procedure.
So, for the purposes of a debate…is there something to this? What are the implications, either medical or political?
- The article was by Tom Bethell in The American Spectator, which is politically aligned with the Right. However, I do not believe that changes the facts of AIDS enumeration (of course, if you disagree, that just means a better debate!), only the interpretation of the implications of the policy.