That’s a trivial observation. Black people who exhibit the stereotypical traits are a subset of the larger group of black people. So obviously the correlation to the larger group is going to be greater. (Using “correlation” in the sense that I think you’re using it.)
The term does not generally apply to white people who exhibit those same traits, Robert Byrd notwithstanding.
No doubt you’d be happy to repeat the “original point”. Because you’d like to obscure what our point of contention has been in this discussion. Which is not the original point about there being no stereotype etc. But about whether you can prove this point from the fact that any black person has a non-zero chance of being called a “nigger”. This is a completely specious point and it’s understandable that you’d rather revert to repeating the “original point”, which whether correct or not at least has some logic to it.
Must have gone over your head. I addressed this in some detail, in the second paragraph that you quoted.
Note, however, that I’ve not made clear that I’m “posting [my] position in order to stimulate discussion”. And in fact I can tell you definitively that that’s not what I’m doing.