Yes they consume the most per capita. Nearly twice the amount of per capita consumption in the USA. But the USA actually consumes more than 12 times the amount of beer.
I suspect this is a trick question, but regardless, there’s not enough information given. How much beer do the other 90% of the population of each country drink? Perhaps 90% of country A drink no beer, while 90% of country B drink two litres each per day.
No I don’t believe so. Country A then is the larger consumer of beer, correct? So simple a third year student would and should reach the same conclusion.
If that’s all there is to the question, yes. Anyone with a basic understanding of the concept of “percent” should be able to easily reach that conclusion.
Someone claimed that an equal number of per capita consumers in 2 places of largely disproportionate populations meant there were equal levels of total consumption.
Region A. They consume 4 units for every 3 units consumed by Region B.
Region A. It has a lower population, and consumes a greater proportion of the worldwide supply of the product.
If the worldwide production of X were 100 units, then Region A consumes 44 units. 44/500 = a per capita consumption of 0.088 units. Region B thus consumes 33 units. 33/800 = per capita consumption of 0.04125 units.
I just wanted to substantiate that this is something that even with this new equation any 6 or 7 year student should be able to handle. It is amazing though that some adults have problems with something so straightforward.
The wording you are using does not make sense. There is no such thing as “an equal number of per-capita consumers”.
Tell your friend that per-capita just means per-person. On average, each person consumes x. Multiply x by the total population to get total consumption.