Simply out of idle curiosity, if Arnold doesn’t participate in the first debate but the other candidates do, and this debate is televised, does that mean that Arnold is entitled to an equal amount of airtime (under state law, I believe?) that his opponents have on the debate?
Does it matter whether he is not invited or is invited but declines?
I mean, after all TV stations have been forbidden from running Arnold’s movies because they promote him. Couldn’t he make this work in his favor if he wanted to?
A debate is considered news I believe. No one is entitled to equal time in news coverage.
The equal time laws generally refer to entertainment shows. For example, someone holds a variety show and each gubernatorial candidate gets to come on and sing or juggle and then make a campaign speech.
If the other 134 candidates are invited, but #135 is not, then #135 can whine to the FCC.
Only the candidates who got at least 5% of polled poeple supporting them were invited. It will be Bustamante, Huffington, Ueberroth, McClintock… is there someone else?
Swarzenegger will participate in a debate later this month, where the questions are provided in advance to all participants. They are not doing that before this debate.
Under the old rules I worked under, if a television (or radio) station or network were to “host” the debate, any candidate would have at least a credible argument for equal time. However, if the League of Women Voters or some other organization were to host the debate, and the stations cover it as a “news event” that they did not produce, they would not be required to give equal time.
I’m not sure if the equal time rules have changed with broadcast deregulation.