I recently heard about a guy who was on probation. He’d been arrested on drug charges and had spent some time in prison. Of course, after coming home he was required to take periodic drug tests. He failed so they picked him up and he swore up and down he had not done any crack cocaine but said he’d had sex with someone who was doing it. Is this possibly true. I kind of doubted his word, but could it show up positive on a drug test from having sex with someone who had it in their system?
No.
.
.
.
.
Unless he’s engaged in really freak stuff, like urine drinking.
He could claim this, sure. That part could be true 
Are these drug tests the usual blood samples? In that case, I suppose it is theoretically possible that sexual contact may transmit characteristics of the partners blood. After all, that’s how AIDS is transmitted as well (among other ways, I know). However, a few caveats:[ul][li]If the person on probation is a guy, the chances would be slimmer. After all, he ejaculates into the woman (assuming no protection), not the other way around. There would be blood-to-blood contact required, I’d say.[/li][*]The traces of crack in someone elses blood might not transfer, or might not survive a transfer to another person by means of blood-to-blood contact.[/ul]It seems highly unlikely this could happen. Then again, I’m not a biologist, and I’m sure someone else possibly is.