Here is my question, I hope someone here can clear things up for me.
OK, because of Massachusetts and other areas in the country dealing with the whole gay marriage thing there has been some talk from opponents about proposing a constitutional amendment to restrict marriage to a man and a woman.
Now, politics and opinions aside would such an amendment be possible in the first place, in the national constitution?
From what I recall of my junior high social studies class, and a little rereading the Ninth Amendment, one of the Bill of Rights, prevents such amendment from ever being added to the constitution. In other words, wouldn't such an amendment be unconstitutional?
====
Amendment IX
The enumeration in the Constitution, of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people.
====
From what I remember of my social studies class, the founding fathers specifically added to this amendment to state that although the majority was given the right of rule, the majority could never had the right to use that rule to infringe or take away any of the rights available to all from any given minority.
For Example an amendment, saying that current cross-eyed five-year-olds cannot have milk, that is a no-no.
The amendment was significant for the the civil rights moment, becuase it pretty much says, “discrimination is bad.” [Said in my best Mr. Mackey voice.]
Also, I know, as in the case of prohibition, that it is possible to repeal and amend the constitution to over a given issue. But part of of the reason the Ninth Amendment is written as it is, is to prevent any such such "right-altering" amendments from ever being amended to the constitution, and therefore the "Ninth Amendment" is in fact somewhat "immune" to ever being altered, with respect to protecting the rights of the people.
Am I correct, from what I remember in school, or is there something I missing?
Just Curious,
Zach
Kentucky