Let me explain what I mean.
As many of you know, The Hobbit was not originally part of J.R.R. Tolkien’s Middle-earth legendarium, by which I mean the mythical history whose origins are told in The Silmarillion. Alert readers may observe that the term Middle-earth does not appear in the chronicle of Bilbo’s adventure; nor are halflings mentioned in “Ainulindalë,” “Valaquenta,” or “Quenta Silmarillion.” The Greater Perfesser began composing these stories after his return from the Great War, around 1914 or so, two decades before he began The Hobbit; and LotR, in its earliest conceptions, was a sequel to TH rather than the conclusion of the Silmarillion stories. You can see in the text where he stitches the tales together; the tone and language of LoTRs Book I is far more like TH’s than those of the other five books, for one thing, and, page for page, TH has a lot more overt magic (or so it seems to me).
Beorn’s absence from the events of LotR is odd. Admittedly he is never described as immortal, but I always had the feeling that he was long-lived, and certainly he is vastly powerful–mightier by far than Gandalf, for instance. It is his intervention that ultimately saves the day in the Battle of the Five Armies. And yet by the time of the Nine Walkers he is dead, mentioned only by implication in his namesake, the Beornings.
Why is this?
One possibility that occurs to me is a Great Game one (that is, pretending that the preface to LotR is accurate in calling Tolkien the translator & redactor of ancient manuscripts). In this vein, we can take TH as a work Bilbo wrote not as a serious chronology but rather as a tale for Hobbit children. Certainly he might have cleaned up some more unpleasant aspects of his adventure. In that light, Thorin & Company took refuge, not with a giant were-bear, but rather with a community of men called the Beornings who, in battle, tended to go berserk, and fought with the unrelenting ferocity we attribute to wild beasts.
Anyway, that’s just my thought. Anybody got a better one?