Is Isreal officially at war with the Palestinians? If not, then it’s a criminal punishment, regardless of whether it’s carried out by the army, the police, or the girl scouts.
For failure to uphold her duty of making sure the boy went to school. Yes, he was the one skipping, but she was the one responsible for having him in school.
Was it really necessary to Godwinize the thread? 
Nope. We’re talking about codified law. Got a cite from the Israeli criminal code to back up your assertion?
IIRC, the process was that the home of a suicide bomber was bulldozed. In that culture, many people live with a larger extended family, so it was deliberately punishing the family (since most of the perp was not around to punish). It was an obvious attempt to dissuade sucide bombers, but for some reason flattening the house of a dozen innocent bystanders seemed to instead make the Palestinians even more anoyed at the invaders. Seems whether the bomber owned the house or not, whether in fact he had actually lived at his registered address recently, etc. was irrelevant data in the decision.
I don’t recall the basis for this - whether it was court ordered, or (more likely) executive order from the military occupation authority. Also, legally, can a person be convicted of a crime if they are already dead? Since from what I recall reading the news, the “punishment” happened only a few days after the bombing, I doubt there was any significant legal proceedings, unless it was one of those fast and loose military tribunals.
Plus, since Israel is a democratic western country according to their website, I cannot imagine such a “law” actually being on the books.
The only cite I can provide the the following is the book Shogun, but I have found
that modern historical novelists strive for accuracy.
In pre-modern Japan entire families, including children of any age, could be liable
for the crimes of any member, an example being that of execution by burning of
arsonists’ families.
Also, early in the book a man was summarily cut down by sword for disrespecting a
Samurai, and his family was fined an impossible amount, which it was understood
the entire village would have to contribute to to make good on.
According to The Family Punishment in Nazi Germany: Sippenhaft, Terror and Myth by Robert Loeffe, it was an unofficial practice for the most part. But it was officially codified in 1944 and 1945 as a series of military directives that applied to members of the armed forces.
Actually, this raises another question: does Isreal actually know the identities of all of those suicide bombers, or were some of those houses picked more-or-less randomly because somebody needs to be punished?
No we are not just talking about codified law. See the OP and post #17.
It is amazing how someone can always find a nitpick to prove that Israel has never ever done anything wrong.
Oh, well that makes it alright then.
Would it count as punishment if kids of a convicted single parent were put into foster care?
I understood this was the reason accused people ended up being ‘pressed’ to death – stones piled on boards across them. This was a technique used to get people to plead guilty or not guilty, because English law didn’t allow the trial to go forward without a plea. But if the trial went forward, and they were found guilty, a probable punishment included death for them and forfeiture of their property, which would leave their spouse & children destitute. If instead, they died when being ‘pressed’, the family still inherited the property.
Also, during the Cold War, many of the communist countries punished family members of people who defected. i remember when they first started allowing East Berlin people to go to West Berlin to visit relatives for Christmas, the whole family couldn’t go at once – some had to stay behind so the others wouldn’t defect.
It is my understanding that under English Common Law a husband was considered legally responsible for any crimes his wife committed against a third party while he was present, as the presumption was that they were a single legal entity and he was the deciderer.
Yes, but I think there’s a difference here. These laws were essentially treating the husband as an accomplice to his wife’s crimes, on the assumption he must have known about and condoned her activities.
If you want to educate yourself on the matter:
This describes it pretty well, from both sides of the issue.
There is no other side. People are being punished, without even due process, for crimes they didn’t commit. That is evil.
It is a human rights violation. It’s good to know you only support human rights when it is convenient.
Pesky indeed.
BTW the most drastic and longstanding practice in this regard seems to have been the Nine Familial Exterminations in China.
Israel does not have US Constitution as the supreme law of the land. In fact, British Mandate laws are still valid in Judea and Samaria - and British mandate law number 119 covers house demolitions.
In fact, US does have something similar. If someone living in your house deals drugs, your house can be confiscated under RICOH statutes.
Godwin’s Law isn’t relevant because the OP asks about laws throughout history.
IMO, Godwin’s Law is nothing if not tiresome. A thread about swastikas couldn’t mention Nazis for fear of Godwin’s Law showing up in the next post.
Quick correction to my above post: it’s RICO statutes.
I might add that the Biblcal injunction “an eye for an eye,” endlessly cited as [often Jewish as opposed to Catholic] as moral depravity, is actually an ethically gentle rebuke to the OP and the cases cited here.
In Afghanistan, say, the you-killed-my-clansmen, I-kill-four-of-yours word thereby be prevented.