Amazing what passes here for the “Straight Dope” at times. :rolleyes:
Let’s for the nonce assume the facts as stated by Metroshane are true (else why bother answering?). The salient points:
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Discipline in past for improper use of computer at work.
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Employer offers position “with start date and salary negotiation” (we will assume this means the date he would assume the position was set, the salary was not finalized).
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Employee calls new boss and advises of fact 1) occurred, and possibly asserts the opinion that Metroshane is a ‘security risk’.
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“Offer” is rescinded.
A) Does Metroshane have a cause of action against the co-employee who blew the whistle?
It has been suggested that the co-employee ‘slandered’ Metroshane. Assuming the co-employee stated that Metroshane had been disciplined for improper computer use, this is a true statement, and thus was not slander. To the extent the co-employee offered an opinion about Metroshane, that can’t be slander (in general, opinions are not ‘true’ or ‘false’). Soulsing is incorrect regardless of who the new employer is, and needs to stop dispensing incorrect legal advice.
It has been suggested that there might have been tortious interference with a contractural or business relationship. In general, to establish this tort, there has to be some improper activity by the person accused of tortious conduct. For example, if I offer a series of opinions about a person with no factual basis for my opinions, purely in an attempt to keep him from getting hired, that might be a tort. Again, since there is only a statement of fact and an opinion based on that statement, it is unlikely that tortious interference with contract would lie, though you certainly could talk to a Texas attorney who specializes in employment law (and should, if you want an answer of real value.
B) Does Metroshane have recourse against the employer?
We start with the question, did a contract exist? Let us assume for kicks and giggles that the “offer” from the new boss was sufficient to bind the company, either because the boss had the authority, or because the company will be estopped from denying his authority. The fact that a start date was set would be strong evidence that some agreement had been reached, with details to be determined later. For now, assume there was a contract.
Was there, then, a breach of that contract? Probably not, though again this is the sort of thing you are better asking an attorney from the state within which the contract was made. It sounds like the employment was ‘at will’, meaning that either party could terminate the contract when they wanted to, within the law. If so, then the only limitations on the employer would be state law regarding wrongful termination. Such laws usually prevent employers from violating a strong public policy by terminating an employee, e.g.: terminating someone because of their race, or sexual orientation, etc. The employer may be required by state law to follow its ‘rules’ regarding termination, if any, and may be prevented from terminating someone if they don’t follow the ‘rules’ (such as notice, hearing, increasing severity of penalties, etc.). There are some complicated issues here, such as potential probationary status, possible implied terms of the ‘contract’, etc., so you really can’t CONCLUDE anything about a cause of action against the employer.
From a practical standpoint, assuming that going to someone higher up doesn’t resolve the issue amicably, who the hell wants to work for an employer they have to sue to force the employer to give them a job?
The forgoing legal analysis is NOT intended to be complete or substitute for going and seeing an attorney in the state in question who specializes in employment law. I offer it solely to give some road map to the issues raised in prior posts, some of which are notably silly and hardly belong in a forum devoted to providing the truth.
Good luck, Metroshane! 