How come OJ Simpson does not file bankruptcy?

Or maybe he did and I didn’t hear about it. Since he owes about 33 million, why can’t he just declare bankruptcy? Or is the civil judgment not subject to discharge?

Malicious tort damages are not subject to discharge.

He said he would if he had to: http://www.cnn.com/US/9707/11/simpson/

But damage awards for “for willful and malicious injury by the debtor to another entity or to the property of another entity” aren’t dischargeable in bankruptcy. So he wouldn’t get much of an advantage if he did. http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/html/uscode11/usc_sec_11_00000523----000-.html