It might be apocryphal (I can’t find any reference to it with a Google search) but there’s a radio station in San Francisco called KOIT FM (normally pronounced with each letter individually–K-O-I-T FM), and I heard they once got slapped because they managed to fit “KOIT Us!” into one of their commercials.
The idea (I presume, and tend to agree) is that for an obvious learned borrowing like this the classical pronunciation should be “correct”, not wrong, anyway. Wiktionary transcribes it as [ˈkoɪt̪ʊs̠], so I do not think @James66 is too far off.
Wiktionary’s Latin pronunciation [ˈkoɪt̪ʊs̠] has /ɪ/ (ih) as the second syllable, not /i/ (ee), and has the accent on the first syllable. It’s essentially the same as the OED’s first English pronunciation. Even if James66’s pronunciation were correct Latin, I don’t agree that it’s acceptable to use the Latin pronunciation for an English word, even if it’s derived from Latin. But “ko ee tuss” is neither correct Latin nor correct English.
Well, since you asked, and I’m not bragging, but it depends on my mood.
Generally, “koh’-ih-tus,” sort of like “Robitus[sun].” Meh, maybe “koy-tus” if it’s casual Fridays.
Either way is acceptable to me, unlike that wretched, hideous bit of nonsense when people willingly reveal their true selves as graceless, uneducated, illiterate imposters who pronounce “processes” with a terminal “eez” sound. That’s illiterate, has no possible justification in any language, present or past, and violators should be disposed of without remorse, while the righteous are filled with the spirit of zesty enterprise which accompanies their summary execution.
I think I agree with what you’re hinting at by putting “correct” in quotes.
Do people have a sense that they are using a Latin word when they say it? I don’t think so, I think its fully adopted. But when correctness derives from consensus, there will always be marginal cases like this that are spoken so infrequently that no consensus exists. I think we could just say fuck it, there is no established correct pronunciation.
Wouldn’t it be the first person singular of coitare, if that is a verb for amorous Romans? If we make the verb real in pretend Latin, the grammar seems correct.
Ah, I see. I was reading it more as a Descartes getting over his existential anxiety-induced erectile dysfunction and celebrating his existence through passionate lovemaking.