Looking for one thing, I stumbled on another. The graph below shows the percentage of families in three income groups over time:
http://cdn.theatlantic.com/newsroom/img/posts/Screen%20Shot%202013-09-06%20at%2011.04.05%20AM.png
It charts three groups, divided by $25K and $75K boundaries (in 2011 dollars adjusted based on US consumer price index) from late 60’s to 2012. The trends are gradual and nearly monotonic, so just listing the start and end points in a chart gives a pretty good idea:
Start: 30% low, 55% middle, 18% high
End: 25% low, 42% middle, 33% high
Clearly, the middle class is reduced. The odd part is, so has the bottom class, and the gains are in the top class.
My interpretation of this is that while there may be more inequality between the middle class and the top 1%, for most of us, there is less inequality, and more people are better off (more people are in a higher class at the end than at the beginning).
My interpretation is that we also have more purchasing power than we did in the 60’s. If more of us are in a higher class, that has to follow, assuming the CPI what we can get for our money (which I believe is the main intent).
So, regardless of the top 1%, it seems the rest of us are better off, not worse off: the top 1% hasn’t “taken away” income from the rest of us (though it may reap much more of the gains in productivity than the rest of us).
Here’s the source, which was a projection analysis for the auto industry. I haven’t assessed the possible motives that might color the analysis by cherry-picking.
What does this chart say to you? Is it believable? Might it be accurate but misleading?
I posted this in GD because I’m interested in opinions. But as always here at SD, I would appreciate responses with facts and citations.
Thanks!