If you will recall my scenario’s were in reference to Objection 1 which I clearly stated does not address your premise. Since objection 1 doesn’t address your premise (nor the scenario’s which are related to objection 1) no more reasoning based on this objection will be done. I’m not trying to prove that there will be less evil in the world if child force fields exist, I’m trying to prove that there will be an imposition of free will.
The key here is free will. As I said I’m not trying to prove that the world will be less evil with child force fields. I’m trying to prove child force fields infringe on free will. What’s the difference between your solution and mine? I think the definition of free will is integral to this debate. It’s your premise that your scenario doesn’t infringe on free will. I want to know what your opinion is of my scenario as that will help illustrate what you consider to infringe on free will, and why.
I don’t think we’re quite on the same level here. What I’m saying is essential to free will is the natural consequence of actions/thoughts. Let’s say that you did have the ability to cause a person to become instantly retarded. You act on that ability and the consequence is one more retarded person.
bolding mine…
His choice did have an effect even though it probably wasn’t necessarily the one he desired. The effect is likely the removal of the child from his custody, perhaps jail time, perhaps court ordered anger management courses, whatever. Simply because his desires weren’t gratified doesn’t mean his free will has been infringed. He acts and suffers all the consequences, whatever they may be (and whether or not they were desired).
You’re right, being physically unable to do things (evil or otherwise) does not impair free will. What does impair free will is the inability to suffer all the consequences of what we are physically capable of doing (whether those consequences are the ones we intended or not).
Grim