[QUOTE=dougie_monty]
:sigh:
What you are saying, including the grammarian’s comment, flies in the face of the apostle John’s language (if you are right, there is no purpose in writing “This (one) was in the beginning with God” in the first place); and you are also ignoring the clear point Tolstoy made. When a preposition is used to show relationship X between entity A and entity B, it means entity A and entity B are not one and the same. It should be obvious by this that in Greek as well as in English the word for “god” has more than one meaning.
You would do well to look at the verse–in Hebrew as well as English–Psalm 82:1.
And for the record, the Interlinear version I used, uses the Westcott and Hort text too.
[/QUOTE]
1.) the quote was not from “a” grammarian, it was quoting what several “eminent” grammarians of the language… it was stating a rule for the translation of the language, without regaurd to theological implications. (I before E if you will)… the quoted greek and translations showed how the rule applied here.
2.) Earlier in the linked article, there is are other quotes from other articles talking about how the WT “mistated” or “misquoted” those scholars in support of this translation. This particular piece nicely illustrates points I have made earlier wrt the WTs intelectual dishonesty, and serves as a basis to start questioning all of thier teachings.
3.) You’re quote, from Tolstoy, appears to already be concerned with the theological implications… so he is already inserting his bias. (I am willing to be corrected on this point…as actually I am willing to be corrected on all points.)
4.) Tolstoy, like the JW, ignore the “preponderance of the evidence” with all other translations, rules, etc to the contrary on this particular subject.
5.) I would counter also with “if he didn’t mean “God”, he would’ve found a different word to use”… I’m sure there was something else available to him.
So, in essence, I’m saying “you clearly don’t get the importance of the quote that I posted”… sort of a “neener neener” to your statement to me.
But therin lies the rub, it cannot be proven conclusivley what the author of this statement intended… it could’ve all been a big joke … it was written 1900 odd years ago, the only copy we have is in pieces and that dates from several hundred years later, and was chosen by the early church fathers to back up how they believed. (and again, was chosen hundreds of years AFTER the events occured by folks that were niether eye-witnesses or even alive during the events.
That, and the author isn’t exactly around to answer questions.
So, any attempt to say that “clearly he did/did not mean this” are at best “guesses”…some educated, some not, but in the end they are still guesses.
As for the translation itself, I will stick with the one that is backed by the preponderance of evidence as to the rules of transalation… let the theoligical implications fall where they may.
And therein lies the proof to my second point wrt the JW… that thier NWT was translated with a bias torward thier theology… they went into the effort knowing what it was they believed… and they found ways to massage the text such that it fit. The translators had no special knowledge of the languages, had no access to any earlier/more complete docs, and have been shown to quote “support” for thier efforts that is disengenous at best.
Not saying they don’t fully believe what they teach, not even saying wether they are right or wrong, simply saying that the evidence is enough to give one reason to question everthing they teach…