Ok, let’s try looking at this from the perspective of the LAW, not our emotional reactions. With respect, Una Persson, I think you know better; while I think many naive (meaning unlearned in the law) people would agree with your reaction, I think you should have enough familiarity with tort law concepts to know that your statements have no bearing on the legal liabilities here.
This tort case sounds in negligence (fancy lawyer speak meaning it’s a negligence case). To be liable under negligence law in the United States, there have to be four things:
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A duty owed by the defendant to the plaintiff
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A breach of that duty by the defendant
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The breach proximately causes
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Legally cognizable damages to the plaintiff.
Did McDonald’s owe a duty to the employee?
Without getting into really technical details, the duty owed by one person to another is that behavior which a reasonably prudent person in the same situation would engage in. We don’t expect people to be perfect, but we do expect people to take reasonable care so that their actions don’t result in injury to others.
Now, if all we knew was that the assistant manager got the call, ostensibly from a police officer, and hauled the employee in and forced her to strip, etc., we might well ask what in the world duty McDonald’s as a corporation owed to the employee which we would consider breached. As treis put it, should McDonald’s really have to consider all sorts of possible outlandish situations in selecting and training management? Is it really negligent as a corporation every time it hires a manager who ends up acting quite foolish or stupid? [NB: this IS a company owned restaurant]
But that set of facts isn’t what we have here. Here, McDonald’s was in possession of knowledge, knowledge specific to this type of incident. By the time of this incident, 68 stores had reported this hoax. 17 of them had occurred in McDonald’s stores. And McDonald’s was already defending four lawsuits stemming from such hoaxes. So McDonald’s knew that these hoaxes were occurring, knew that they resulted in behavior that was otherwise quite unthinkable, knew that they had already occurred in the general area of this restaurant. Under the circumstances, the question becomes, does a reasonable corporate person, knowing what McDonald’s knew, owe a duty to its managers and employees to warn them about such hoaxes? I think we would have to agree that a reasonable corporate person would be expected to warn its management staff, especially in its company owned stores. Really good corporate citizens might even consider warning the foot soldiers, too.
Now, does that “duty” on the part of McDonald’s extend to the employee here? Even if we limit the duty to a requirement that McDonald’s warn its managers, the person to whom the duty would be owed are the employees, because its the employees who end up being the victims of the hoax (I’m not going to address the question of liability to the assistant manager, because that’s a red herring and can be discussed in a separate thread). So, McDonald’s owes a duty to its employees to try and prevent these hoaxes from happening, which it can meet by simply making sure its managers know that such calls have been occurring, and are hoaxes.
Did McDonald’s breach its duty to the employee?
Company executives testified that they had sent out memos to owners and operators about the hoaxes. However, one such memo in 2003 noted that, “It appears the information is not reaching our restaurant staff.” (quoting global security director). The manager, assistant manager involved, assistant manager also on duty at the time, and the AREA manager (multiple stores) all testified they had never heard about the hoaxes. So clearly, evidence shows that McDonald’s was not being successful in getting the information out. And, as pithily noted by the plaintiff’s attorney during closing arguments, “they get the word out when there is a McRib special.” In other words, when it wants to McDonald’s is able to notify everyone down to counter personnel of something the company considers important enough.
Did the breach of duty proximately cause
First question: did the breach cause the plaintiff’s damages? Here is where many of you are getting hung up. For there to be cause, it is not necessary that the breach be the ONLY cause. As long as the breach is a part of the causation, cause exists. So the fact that the stupidity of the assistant manager (and, potentially, of the plaintiff) also caused the situation is irrelevant. We must agree that the duty to warn exists precisely so that, if such a call were received, the assistant manager (and, presumably, the plaintiff) would know to ignore it (or, better, to report it). So, by breaching the duty to warn, the assistant manager was left unprotected against what was known to be a potential for being duped into precisely the sort of thing she did (and lets not be too harsh on her; it happened to 68 other people as well!).
But, for negligence, it can’t just be a cause. It has to be what we call the “proximate” cause. I wish I could give you a simple definition of that term, but frankly, no one knows exactly what it means, legal scholars argue about it all the time, courts reach quite interesting results because of it (can anyone say Palsgraf??). It is supposed to mean the cause closest in relationship with the event in question (that’s why “proximate” is used. But it has evolved to mean that cause which, in a natural and continuous sequence, unbroken by any efficient intervening cause, produces the injury and without which the [event] could not have happened, if the injury be one which might be reasonably anticipated or foreseen as a natural consequence of the wrongful act." (quoting Black’s Law Dictionary, 5th ed.) That’s quite a mouthful. It means, in essence, the cause for which we are willing in tort law to find you liable (we don’t think anything that intervened takes you off the hook for your breach).
Did that happen here? We know that there was some astoundingly difficult to understand behavior by the assistant manager (not to mention the boyfriend!!). Shouldn’t that be considered a legally intervening, or superceding cause? If the only duty from McDonald’s was a general duty of care to its employees, probably so, yes. But the duty here was the duty to warn against this specific hoax. Had that duty not been breached, the assistant manager would not have taken the plaintiff into the room, and done what she did. The foreseeable consequence of failing to warn is precisely what happened: the imposition of criminal sexual acts upon an employee by management under the color of authority of the local police. In short, the breach proximately caused the whole thing. The “stupid” acts of the assistant manager can’t be considered sufficient to break the causation chain because they are precisely the acts the breach itself would be expected to produce.
Now, however, we get to the boyfriend. This part of the case is where I suspect some attention would be given on appeal. While the failure to warn certainly can be expected to lead to the actions of the assistant manager (they are part of the prior pattern), can we consider the calling in of the boyfriend, and the cooperation in getting the plaintiff to engage in fellatio a foreseeable consequence of the breach? The trouble is, once you set in motion a chain of events through your negligence, unless you can point to an intervening cause sufficient to act as a termination of your own causation, you will be responsible for the damages, even if it seems a bit like a Rube Goldberg machine was in action. Compare, for example, a multi-car crash resulting from one person running a red light; there may be events in the chain quite amazing in result, all of which were proximately caused by your simple running of the light. In short, while I think an argument can be made that the boyfriend’s behavior could be considered outside the scope of the damages for which the company is liable, it is not even close to open and shut.
Legally cognizable damages
Not really at issue here. Clearly there were damages; “She began suffering from panic attacks, severe insomnia and nightmares about “a guy attacking” her, according to a court deposition from her therapist, Jean Campbell. Riddled with anxiety and depression, Ogborn was forced to switch from one antidepressant to a second, then a third and a fourth, before she finally found some relief.” (from the article linked by brickbacon) In addition, it appears that some aspect of Kentucky law allowed the plaintiff to include a claim for punitive damages, which appear to make up the majority of the liability found to exist ($5M, if I understand the breakdown).
I will also point something out: generally, punitive damage awards aren’t available as an option unless the behavior of the defendant isn’t merely “negligent.” Somewhere along the line, there has to be something about the defendant’s actions that the law considers really bad, sufficient not only to require compensating the plaintiff but also punishing the company. I don’t know exactly why there was a potential for punitive damages here; I’ve not read what the legal basis for the punitive damage claim was. But it underscores that this was not a marginal case, with merely negligent behavior at its crux.
Finally, please note that McDonalds also did some less than intelligent things here. First, they appear to have lied about the matter, asserting that the plaintiff was on the clock at the time of the incident, when, in fact, the records showed she was not on the clock (if she had been, it would have been a workers’ compensation case, with no civil tort liability). Second, they may have withheld evidence about the other cases about which they knew (the plaintiff’s attorney makes reference in closing arguments to McDonald’s “concealing 16 boxes of documents showing that exactly the same thing that happened to Summers befell managers at its other restaurants.” And thirdly, the jury at least decided that the company attempted to falsely attribute certain false statements to a maintenance man at the store, who, in actual fact, appears to have been one of the few who wasn’t willing to go along with what the “police” were asking be done during the hoax. Jury in McDonald’s hoax strip-search case argued over award total for Louise Ogborn (Courier-Journal, 10/6/07)
I’m not saying the result of the case is something everyone, even in the legal community could agree on. I AM saying that American tort law (largely based on the common law we inherited from England, so not drastically different from English law around the world) provides a substantial basis for this result. In short, it is not some “travesty,” but rather a predictable result under the law.