I 100% agree with this, my question is why *white men * have a higher rate of *sexual assault *than all of the other races (combined).
It seems to me that you’re saying that (1) it’s expected that whites will have the crime rates equal to or less than than their percentage of the population and (2) it’s expected that the crime rate rate for blacks will be equal to or less than their percentage of their population. It’s like you’re saying, “It’s understandable that majority of paedophile tourist from U.S to South America are middle-aged whites males because this percentage reflects the population demographic.”
Also, why is it that black children are less likely to be molested and more likely to tell an adult than their white counterparts? Finally, if you have 1.5 million rapes and about 1.3 million were white women and 230 thousand were black women, what does that tell you? Why are white women more than 4x likely to be raped than black women and several orders of magnitude more likely to be raped than other races?
Um…there are more than 4x more ‘white’ women than there are ‘black’ women? And there are more ‘black’ women then there are ‘other races’, especially if you break them down into arbitrary categories (‘Asian’ for instance).
Yes, it is striking that black women, who make up only about 13% of the US female population, make up 20% of sexual assault victims. If your figures are correct then black women are disproportionately likely to be sexually assaulted.
Rate is a ratio between two measurements. If the population is around 70% white and 12% black, and the prison population of those convicted for sexual assault (per your OP) is 75% white and 23% black…there is no higher rate of sexual assault among white men.
Similarly, comparing whole numbers of (female) rape victims by race will not give you the rate.
Yes, if the figures are correct, it is black Americans who are overrepresented as both perpetrators and (female) victims of sexual assault, though not to the same extent as with other violent crimes.
I’m not sure if anyone noted this yet, but this is actually just an acurate representation of the population. The USA is about 70% white. You will notice that if you look at the same offenses in other nations, say Japan, most of THOSE offenders are Japanese. Same seems consistent with other nations. I’ll dig up the research somewhere…
Anyhoo, my theory is that just as those liberal suspect, minorities just generally get railroaded in this country when it comes to the criminal justice system. Whites aren’t over representative of the serial killer/rapest population, minorities are overepresented every where else in the criminal justice system. I just believe that what ever preference may be given to a person based on their race, that is incrementally lose as the criminal offense gets incrementally worse. So basically if you are a child rapist or serial killer, no one gives a crap what your race is, what sort of family support you have, what sort of abuse your suffered or how much money you spend on your attorney, some crimes are just too horrible.
As you said, the paper doesn’t mention the race of the perpetrator, but very commonly the victim and offender are of the same race. Conveniently enough, whites aren’t just the majority, they are roughly 70% of the majority. As far as every conceivable crime under the sun, some research has shown that whites are responsible for much of the crime, however, this gets skewed more and more towards minorities the farther into the criminal justice system you go. Whites and minorities are arrested at rates somewhat skewed compared to the population, the minories then have less resources and family support which leads to more harsh convictions where a white person (or someone with more resources and support) could plea to a lesser charge, minorities are sentenced more harshly and there fore more end up in prison with longer sentences or community superivison.
Whites are expected to commit X% of the crime if they are X% of the population. For example, when the U.S government claims that 80% of paedophile sex tourist in South America are from the U.S and the majority of those are white males, this surprises none of you because white males make up a disproportionate percentage of the population?
Despite committing the most rapes and sexual assaults (number and percentage), white males are statistically no more likely to indulge in this criminal behavior?
“Most convicted rapist are white males. Genetic component?” is not good title and doesn’t make sense while the title “Most high school dropouts are minorities. Genetic component?” is aesthetically more pleasing and a little less eye-searing?
Will someone, please, pretty please with sugar-on-top, explain why black children are LESS likely to be molested and MORE likely to tell an parent of the abuse.
In the history of the United States, has there been a moment when a black perpetrator was involved Columbine/Newton/Virginia Tech-style massacre in a school followed by a suicide? I can’t recall any but I’m hopeful there’s an example of blacks “going off the deep end”. Could genes be involved here, too?
Yes. Sex offenders are overwhelmingly male, and there are about 70 white men in America for every 13 black men, 5 Asian men, and 12 other-ethnicity men. So, it follows that the average sex tourist would probably be a white male. The factors that lead to black men being overrepresented in some crimes, such as murder, don’t influence sex tourism, I don’t think.
It doesn’t appear so. Your cite, the SOO report from 1997, gives the figures that 52.2% of those incarcerated for rape and 73.9% of those incarcerated for sexual assault are white.
This DoJ report is more current, being from 2006. Table 40 has data on perceived race of offender by the victim, rather than using conviction data. For rape and sexual assault (combined in this table), the data is 48.8% of offenders perceived as white, 18.1% as black, 16.2% as other, and 17% not known or not available.
Given that white men are about 70% of the male population, that means white men are underrepresented in conviction for rape, and *slightly * overrepresented in conviction for sexual assault in the SOO numbers, and underrepresented on both in the DoJ Crime Victimization Statistics Tables.
Both make sense, and both have a high burden of proof. Good luck proving either.
I couldn’t find this in the SOO report, what’s the source for this claim?
Why does it matter that it be a school, exactly? It took a few seconds to find a mass shooting by a black man that ended in suicide: Omar Thornton.
It’s been mentioned here before that school shootings are a suburban phenomenon, taking place in small-to-midsized towns. It could be the case that blacks are underrepresented in those communities.
It could be genetic, but, again, high burden of proof.
ETA: There’s Nicholas Elliot, who entered his classroom with a handgun and shot two teachers before his gun jammed and he was overtaken and captured. Sounds like a mass school shooting prevented by a lucky accident.
Yes, it looks like it’s quite a bit more likely for a black woman to be sexually assaulted. 75-80% of the US population is white, so the percentage of white sexual assault victims seems to match up pretty well with the percentage of white women in the general US female population. But there are about 50% more black women in the sexual assault victim group than there are in the general US female population (20% vs 13%).
You have not demonstrated that black children are less likely to be molested, only that they are outnumbered by white victims. If 60% of child molestation victims are white then it sounds like it’s actually white children who are less likely to be molested.
White males from the USA are vastly overrepresented in child sex tourism. Worldwide and in the Americas. The clearest genetic component is the SRY gene which is the single gene on the Y chromosome that initiates the cascade of events leading to male development.
They’re statistically less likely according to the types of data you provided. That data is subject to many biases.
No. If most high school dropouts are minorities then that’s a problem of over-representation. If convicted rapists are mostly white then this is unsurprising because our population is mostly white.
I thought you were making a parody of scientific racist thinking earlier. I kinda take back what I said now. If you actually are serious with this then you’re not any different than they are.
Wow! That’s what I’m talking about. SRY, huh? You’re awesome. I love you.
You’re free to have your opinion. When we have a monthly “BLKS R DUMB” thread, the silence on this message board is so deafening that you can hear a mouse piss on cotton. I guess the fight against ignorance starts with wielding sword of silence and donning the armor of deafness. When and if I start these threads every month about the intrinsic, gene-driven evilness of white people, then I’ll gladly take the mantle of just like the closet racists. Otherwise, try to give me some credit.
I think I understand now. Because whites are the majority, they can only be underrepresented and very rarely over-represented for any crime. Therefore, whether it’s sexual violence, rape, or money laundering, the crime rate for whites will remain unremarkable while crime rates for minorities will be looked at as high. That’s some flawless armor, not something I think I can chink or chip away at.
I’ll be glad to help with your alternative point of view in the future. I’ve spent a lot of time arguing in the “BLKS R DUMB” threads. Considering that the main supporters of the “BLKS R DUMB” position have: (1) persevered in their distortions of genetic data, social data, and psychological data, (2) wrapped this monstrosity all in a speculative little bow, (3) have not the faintest ability to analyze where they are making weak leaps in their logic, and (4) are completely unaffected by 1000s of person hours in showing how they are wrong by myself and people far more eloquent than me, then it’s unsurprising people are bored of arguing it.
Yeah, it’s all due to the social ramifications of being the ‘majority’. It may also be a statistical artifact. It may be that if we actually sat down and did the chi-square test for independence we would see no significance.
Why are white males such huge sexual deviants that they feel the need to be overrepresented in the world child sex tourism industry? 25%? SICK! Clearly men over 40 should be castrated in order to prevent the white genetic deficiency from victimizing more of our world’s children.
Your title is: “Most convicted rapists are white males. Genetic component?”
It appears the source of your confusion here is the difference between absolute numbers and expected rates based on percentage representation of a given population in the total group being evaluated.
From your cite:
“The racial distribution of arrestees for rape is similar to the racial distribution for all violent UCR arrests. 56% of arrestees for rape in 1995 were white, 42% were black, and 2% were of other races.”
From the FBI tables for 2010, we see blacks represent about 1/3 of arrests for forcible rape; whites about 2/3.
Roughly 13% of the US population self-describes as black; 73% self-describes as white. So blacks are arrested for rape at something like three times the rate that whites are. In other violent crimes such as homicide, of course, the difference is even more disproportionate to the larger population.
Statistics for violent crime–including rape–in the United States do show a markedly disproportionate number of crimes are committed by blacks. Before assigning a genetic component to this, one avenue of research might be to look into similar relative rates worldwide to see if a general pattern of these SIRE categories holds. The relative rates would be more helpful than absolute numbers, since laws and prosecution rates vary so markedly from one area to another.
PS: I thought you said “Every human being on this planet has the same set of genes” in that other thread. What’s all this stuff about an R177H mutation driving a difference from one group to another? Is PGRN just a nickname for a whole set of genes, each variant of which might drive a different phenotypic outcome?