If a government contract states that the government may provide certain property to the contractor on a “non-interference” basis, without further stipulating what that means, is there a standard for what this means? Does it mean that the contractor will use the property only when the use doesn’t interfere with the government? Does it mean that the government provides the property without interfering with the contractor’s use of it? Is it mutual; they can’t interfere with each other?
The best I could find is this article. The upshot seems to be that the property may be used by the contractor for purposes unrelated to the contract, as long as (1) priority is always given to use for the contracted purpose, (2) explicit permission is given for such use in the contract or by the Contracting Officer, and (3) such use does not interfere with the performance of the work being contracted for.
That’s awesome. Thanks!
That is a great answer. IANAL or a CO but I deal with government contracts. I’ll just add that the OP asks, “If a government contract states…” That clause is from the FAR so therefore applies to virtually all federal government contracts when the contract does not explicitly conflict with the FAR.