Pravnik I’m not sure what your point is considering that any killing allowed is “Sanctioned” and any not allowed is obviously unsanctioned thus illegal. It is why that I was referencing to. I want to draw a distinction that not everything, in fact most nothing in Society exists for scientific or “logical” reasons.
You may be able to present a vaguely logical argument for not allowing killing, but really it does not exist. Nazi Germany, Soviet Union, Japan pre-Unconditional Surrender, Ancient Rome, Ancient Greece, Ancient Germanic Tribes, most Ancient Cultures had a much more broad amount of sanctioned killings.
If I made any erroneous assumption, it is that there are but two things, “religion” and “science.”
But really that’s all there is, while we commonly associate Religion to an actual established church, it is more expansive than just that, usually a religion is synomynous with a culture less so now but still a factor.
Marley23, I hope that helps your first question? The reason I posted this is I wanted to see what people thought.
There are several threads stating some moral establishment (gay marriage, polygamy), and then asking for a scientific or rather, non-religious objection to it. Regardless of the poster’s intent the intent as I see it, is to show that there is no reason not to allow those things, or at least in the case of Gay marriage, with polygamy it could just be that in both cases the poster is curious.
I am curious if there are scientific reasons to illegalize Murder, that is, killing someone on the street because they are Jewish, or they didn’t bow to you, or they were your family’s enemy. I doubt there is any scientific evidence to prevent such.
As so, it is my feeling that in most part, morals of society should not have to be explained by science, or scientific method, or at all. Morals are the morals, they should be respected as they are publically, but not privately.
That is, a person should follow their own morals, speak of them as they will, and if they so choose, seek to shape the laws based on their morals. But they should not deny others the right to establish their morals equally on the grounds of “Science.”
Is there a scientific reason to deny Gays marriage? Probably not, at least not one easily argued.
Is there a reason to deny polygamy other than morals? No.
Is there a reason to deny killing people in a more broad sense than currently allowed today in our society? That’s yet to be determined by this thread, but my opinion is that there is not.
I can not think of a scientific reason nor rational reason why we should not live as the Vikings did, killing whomever stands in our way. While Viking society was a harsh survival of the toughest, it still was a well woven together society that spawned several nations including Russia as we know it today, and produced much culture and art.
Greece was similar but did have more laws. However, it was equally brutal in many respects.
So this is a bit of a “why bother?” post. Why bother asking if there are non-religious reasons not to allow Gay Marriage? Why bother? I say we shouldn’t bother because there are no non-religious reasons to deny people the right to killing someone who slept with your wife, or to killing someone who insulted you.
These are moral establishments by our society that we simply follow because we are raised that way. There is a Viking Edda one of the last to be told before the culture was “Christianized” and I’ve forgotten its name but if I remember it I will tell you.
But what I remember of it, it was a mother singing of her boy becomming a man, he was 12 and killed his first person, another kid who he got in an argument with and he cut him down with a sword.
If we were raised in that type of society, we would not see that as brutal but natural.
So in a sense, I am asking, are morals invalid? Should we base all our laws on “scientific reasoning”???
Let’s put our heads together John, that is, if you can off hand tell me how Viking Society had any unsanctioned killings, please tell me. That is a law, where-by should you violate it you would be punished.
I recognize that in Nordic culture should you wrongfully kill another that other’s kin could challenge you of their own free will to a duel or just out right stab you in the back. But I can’t think of an instance where you would be punished for killing another other than one’s property (slaves, dogs, so forth.) In which case you had to pay them a reprimand.
But I do not want you to just chicken out and say, “See there is an unsanctioned killing.”
That was more of an economic issue, slaves made their owners money or provided a service, any loss of them had to be compensated.
An unsanctioned murder would have to be a Viking killing a man and because of that killing was brought before his king or elders and punished.
I already said I can not think of one instance…but if you can be my guest.
Also to clear up obfuscations, if you think Viking society was not “long lasting” it lasted as far as any archaeologist can tell, from about 2000 BC to 900 AD. With the culture coming to full bloom about 800BC I think it was?
Oh but to clear up religion and morality.
I posted it “Religion//morality” because I don’t connect the two absolutely.
I think all religions have their own set of morals, but I believe everyone even Atheists, have morals, but I do not think Morals are derived from scientific reasoning though they may or may not be derived from praticality.
Is this post clearing up enough of what I’m looking for? I’m looking for justification why I should be criticized for making a legal decision based on morals and not science. That is, I choose to ban certain forms of killing, not because of scientific methods proving a rational reason, but just because it was how I was raised.