I live in New York City and have heard from more than one person that most subway push victims are white women who are pushed by their significant male other (husband or lover).
Is there any validity to this urban legend? The MTA doesn’t report these kinds of statistics.
Hey good research, but if I read that right they only looked at the percentage of people who were referred for psychiatric treatment. And the majority of *those * were psychotic.
Just to break it out:
49 total incidents13 perpetratators not acting alone
36 perpetrators acting alone[INDENT]of that 36:
11 not referred for psychiatric evaluation and treatment
25 were referred for psychiatric evaluation and treatment (+1 not acting alone) = 26[INDENT]*of that 26:*6 had no data collected
20 had data collected[INDENT]of that 20:
1 was not psychotic
19 were psychotic
7 were not homeless
13 were homeless[/INDENT][/INDENT][/INDENT]
So 19 out of 49 incidents were psychotic people. The other 30 were unreferred (and presumably mostly not psychotic). When they say that almost all were strangers, they’re only referring to 20 of the incidents (people referred for treament on whom they collected data.) So, presumably:
13 of the incidents were not lone perpectrators = 27%
19 of the incidents were psychotic individuals (and most of these were strangers) plus 6 people referred for treatment who had no data collected on them. Assume, most of these (if the trend holds) were psychotic = 25 = 51%
11 of the incidents were lone individuals not referred for treatment who may or may not have known their victims., presumably non-psychotic. Plus 1 person referred for treatment who turned out not to be psychotic = 12 = 24%
That last 24% may or may not be spouses and boyfriends, but even if all of them turned out to be spouses and boyfriends (unlikely) it would still be at most a quarter of all attacks. Half would be psychos, and the final quarter would be attackers in groups (e.g. gangs)
Thanks for the analysis; I should have worked through the figures more closely. However, I don’t think that it’s certain what this phrase in the abstract refers to:
You read it as referring to only the 20 incidents on which data were collected; I on the other hand assumed that it referred to all 39 incidents. The antecedent to “these crimes” is not clear. Of course, it is not necessary to collect data on mental health in order to determine whether or not the perpetrator knew the victim or not. I presume this information would have been easily available on *all * the cases. Therefore this sentence could very well mean that strangers committed all of the crimes. However, it is impossible to be sure without reading the article itself.
Ack you’re right and actually I got a little of the math wrong too, so taking your caution about the ambiguous antecedent, and those corrections, here’s my corrected interpretation (I’m so anal):