Well, obviously, the difference, technically speaking, is the ephebophile is attracted to the post-pubescent, and the pedophile the pre-pubescent. There are likely to be significant neurological and psychological differences, in addition to the more obvious sings of endocrinological difference, between either’s object of affection.
So there are at least a few of the concrete qualities dilineating the pedophile from the ephebophile. I think what we’re generally interested in is the question of propriety. Is there, or should there be, any substantial difference, in terms of ethics, between a man who engages in sexual activity with a boy who is 10 and a boy who is 13? 16? 17? Is puberty really a good delineator? Is the age of 18 any better? In light of the whole Foley scandal, and the constant reminder that “pedophile” is not likely to be an accurate description of the man, I do wonder what it is we’re dealing with. Is it a problem of paraphilia? Is it limited to workplace ethics and other codes of conduct, and hence no true impropriety would have occurred if boys Foley might have approached were casual aquaintances rather than low-level interns?
I tend to think that mature men and women having sex with minors, even sexually-developed minors, is an arrangement fraught with risk of abuse. It’s one thing for a 19-year-old to be sleeping with a 16-year-old. It seems to me quite another when the elder could be the younger’s parent or grandparent. Somehow that crosses a line in my mind, though I confess I’m not good at articulating it, and I wonder why the laws we have about age-of-consent and the definition of minor are mostly silent on the entire issue. I assume what Mr. Foley did was wrong not only in the realm of workplace ethics, but in the realm of sexual abuse. But others might strongly disagree with that assessment, and I’m interested in an honest debate on the subject. I just don’t know any other way to resolve my own questions on the matter.