[QUOTE=TazMan]
If we encounter someone with exactly two children, given that at least one of them is a boy, what is the probability that both of her children are boys?
Now, I understand why the answer is 1/3.
What I can’t wrap my head around is this:
If I am going to visit a couple that has two children, and a son answers the door, the probability that his sibling is a boy is 1/2, right?
Known child: boy
Unknown child has an equal chance of being: boy-girl
Why can’t I use the same logic in the riddle?
Known child: boy
Unknown child has an equal chance of being: boy-girl
[/QUOTE]
Okay, try this. The above riddle is analogous to the following situation, along the vein of the ‘visiting’ example.
You didn’t visit the family yourself. A friend of yours did, and reported: “The couple has two children. One answered the door. The other was out in the backyard playing at the time. At least one of them is a boy.”
So, you have the following possibilities:
- Boy at the door, girl in the backyard
- Girl at the door, boy in the backyard
- Boy at the door, boy in the backyard
Whereas if you knew that the boy answered the door, you have only possibilities 1 and 3 still in line with the evidence.
That’s the general rule. If you know that one specific child is a boy, it is different from knowing that ‘the kids are not both girls’, (which is the same thing as saying that at least one of the children is a boy but not specifying which in any way.)
Like a lot of cases with probabilities, it’s easy to trip up. If your friend, in the previous example, WANTED to be able to report to you that a boy had been in one place, (at the front door or in the backyard,) and would have chosen the place accordingly if there were one child of each gender, then you’re not at 1/2 probability anymore.
Hope that this helps.