There is a real question following this discursus, so please
bear with me until I get there.
Once, I worked out a fairly rigorous proof of the well-known
formula, (4/3)(pi)r**3 which gives the volume of the sphere. My approach was essentially as follows:
(1) We have a sphere with radius R. Temporarily disregard the lower hemisphere and just work on the half the sphere.
(2) Imagine slicing that hemisphere horizontally into (n) slices. The slices all have the same thickness, so the
thickness of each is R/n.
(3) Assume that if we have a sufficiently large (n), we can treat the slices not as true spherical slices, but as thin cylinders.
(4) Because the slices are of uniform thickness, we know exactly how far up the ith slice from the bottom of the hemisphere is–(R/n). By use of the Pythagorean Theorem,
we can therefore calculate the radius ® of the slice, enabling us to express the volume of the cylinder in terms of ® and (n).
(5) The approximate volume can then be expressed as a sum
of cylindrical slices. A little algebra reveals that as (n)
increases without bound, the resulting answer is (2/3)(pi)r**3.
(6) Add the bottom hemisphere back and double the above result to get (4/3)(pi)r**3.
Now my question. Are there any other approaches that work?
Someone once told me it was possible if you imagined the sphere to be composed of an infinite number of cones or pyramids, with their apexes touching the center of the sphere, but I don’t see how that could work.