Not exactly. The book I referenced ‘Jewish Fundraising Campaigns with Holocaust Claims During WW I’, that world war ONE, documents many articles claiming that the Jews in Europe were in the gravest danger, etc.
Without clicking that link, I would venture a guess those articles are from Zionists trying to encourage European Jews to emigrate to Palestine. Zionists might exaggerate the dangers for that goal, believing it good for the Jews in the long run, but they never wanted the Holocaust to happen.
Nazi policy in the 1930s was to compel the Jews to leave Germany. In the early years of Nazi rule in Germany, a number of measures where introduced to facilitate the emigration of German Jews to Palestine
The Nazis and the Zionists made agreements to get the Jews to Palestine. This was written up in a book called ‘The Transfer Agreement’ by Edwin Black a few years ago.
Of course there were plenty of articles “claiming that the Jews in Europe were in the gravest danger” - they were. What I wonder about, specifically, is the “six million” figure. You have, so far, mentioned no more than two articles using this specific number in the years between 1906 and WWII. Are there more examples?
And hey, you forgot to answer my second question.
I’ll repeat it: Why did the worldwide Jewish conspiracy pick that number, specifically? Do you believe, as the writers of that homepage you linked to seem to do, that it was chosen because, in Kabbalism, supposedly:
Do you believe this? Do you believe any of it? All of it? None of it?
It seems unlikely. I think the six million figure was the total # of Jews in Russia as per the 1906 article, or something like that, so they started with it, it sounded good, etc. Beyond that I have no idea.
I can’t explain it. These were 15 pages (I think) of notes taken on a meeting that goes into detail about how the Jews are to be rounded up and sent east …
From the document …
*"III.
Another possible solution of the problem has now taken the place of emigration, i.e. the evacuation of the Jews to the East, provided that the Führer gives the appropriate approval in advance.
These actions are, however, only to be considered provisional, but practical experience is already being collected which is of the greatest importance in relation to the future final solution of the Jewish question.
In the course of the practical execution of the final solution, Europe will be combed through from west to east. Germany proper, including the Protectorate of Bohemia and Moravia, will have to be handled first due to the housing problem and additional social and political necessities.
The evacuated Jews will first be sent, group by group, to so-called transit ghettos, from which they will be transported to the East.
SS-Obergruppenführer Heydrich went on to say that an important prerequisite for the evacuation as such is the exact definition of the persons involved.
It is not intended to evacuate Jews over 65 years old, but to send them to an old-age ghetto - Theresienstadt is being considered for this purpose."*
Of why the number of about to be exterminated Jews is frequently listed as six million, stating in 1906, and in many articles up to the advent of WW II? No, the number is fantasy from some source or the other, I haven’t given it any thought, I don’t think there is anything of substance to think about.
So the idea from 1906 and on was… What, exactly? To intentionally provoke, some thirty-five years down the line, a halfway, sorta-kinda Holocaust, which they would then portray as the “real deal”, with the fabled six million victims? And if so, why? To what end?
And did these Jewish conspirators know from the very beginning (ca. 1906) that they wanted to pin the blame on Germany? Or could it just as well have been Russia, France, the Ukraine or whatever? And if it had to be Germany, specifically - then why?
There was a history of anti-semitism in Germany. I’m reading a book on the Warburgs, from which I gather that the Jews were pretty much segregated prior to 1800, and were gradually emancipated during the 1800s. The Warburg book refers to the birth of ‘modern’ anti-semitism, that is post emancipation anti-semitism as starting with a German book ‘The Victory of Judaism’ by Wilhelm Marr. I just read where there was a Anti-Semitic political party in Germany in the late 1800s.
The development of Hitler’s anti-semitic opinions is given in detail in Mein Kampf. In short he equated Jews with communism, the Social Democratic political party in Germany, and the trade unions, all of whom he saw as working to undermine German nationalism.
Anti-semitism in Germany no doubt increased after WW 1 because the country was reduced to poverty, turmoil, and strife, and the Jews became a scapegoat. I don’t have a link for this, but it seems plausible.
In order for you to prove that the numbers, etc are ‘fantasy and made up’ - perhaps you need to do the work to prove that - you know, go back and reseach the actual topic - then you could, you know, provide some information that could be used to validate that it is, or is not, ‘fantasy’ - otherwise - your dismissing without cause.