That’s it. Civil War 2.0
MAYONNAISE n. Alabaman term (whether of Chickasaw or Choctaw or West African or Cajun origin is unresolved and controversial) meaning “bull semen”; also, according to some linguists, loosely translatable into English as “This has been our little joke all these years.”
I shudder to think of how they define Miracle Whip.
Okay, this thread has survived multiple hijack attempts from Republicans (most notably those of He Whose Cites Are Non-Existent), but I’m not sure it can survive a round of BBQ Jihad.
I’ll miss it.
That statement by Perry has veered off the road from Stupidville and has careened deep into the heart of Crazytown.
I have had some excellent beef in Nebraska. Best steak I’ve ever had was in Kobe, Japan.
I’ve heard the best steak in the country is Ben Benson’s in NYC, though where they get their beef from is unknown to me, and I have never been in the establishment.
WaPo on the “Obama derangement syndrome” Republicans are suffering from.
There are some things that Man was not meant to know.
Dear heavens.
And I thought Idaho was going to take the prize for idiocy this month. Nope. Check out a few of the latest laws being proposed in Montana, including a dress code for legislators (mostly directed at the women) and allowing game hunters to use silencers.
Back in Tennessee, state rep Vanhuss has introduced HJR 71, which would amend the state constitution to include “We recognize that our liberties do not come from governments, but from Almighty God, our Creator and Savior”. Meanwhile, his pal rep Sexton wants to make the bible the state book.
Any masochists here? Tennessee is calling out to you!
Well, of course. How are you going to bag your limit of little old ladies in the Wal-Mart parking lot if they scatter when they hear your first shot?
I keep seeing this meme and I have to ask. Has there been one instance of a judge following Shariah law that in any way conflicts with state or federal law? I mean, these weird ideas have to start from something, right?
Did a judge somewhere say “Our law says X but since the defendant is Muslim we will use Shariah law for Y instead!”?
I’m 100% in support of net neutrality… but I think you’re wrong here. Net Neutrality is the government telling really big ISPs “hey, that thing you want to do where you charge different rates and provide different bandwidths based on where the packets are coming from? so what you can make more money? yeah, you can’t do that”.
So net neutrality is keeping the internet un-controlled. And the corporations that own the big routers want to do that controlling. So net neutrality is the government stopping big corporations from doing something they want to do.
Which is at least arguably regulation.
Of course not. I can’t find a good cite and IANAL but , IIRC, this is something that usually involves civil proceedings or family law. As simplified example – two people from Rhode Island are involved in an auto accident in Mexico and one of them feels wronged and wants to pursue a civil suit. Now both parties are not going to want to fly down to Mexico for this so the suit is filed in a local court. Now, one of the issues before the court may be “Did party “A” break any laws with regards to the incident that injured party B?” But since the incident happened in a foreign country, the laws that may have been broken are foreign laws and if the court addresses this question then the court is “considering foreign laws”.
I think ( and I cannot find a cite ) that one of the cases that bought the issue forward was a family law/ custody case that had elements that had already been ruled on in a South American court and the US court considered this ruling ( while not being bound by it ) in issuing their own ruling.
It’s the wingnuts that brought Sharia law into the debate by the use of their crazy “what-if’” scenarios. I don’t believe any US court has ever considered applying Sharia law.
Or it can be seen as taking the regulation out of the hands of the private sector and putting it into the hands of the public sector.
It’s important to note that Sharia has been applied in US courts. However, it can only be applied pursuant to a contract, where the parties agree that the contract will be construed in accordance with (say) Islamic divorce laws. We’ve done the same thing with Jewish laws for centuries so it’s not some sort of encroachment.
A US court (federal or state) has no jurisdiction to hear a tort case between two US citizen-residents arising in a foreign country, unles it occurred on a US ship or aircraft (or in certain other very unusual circumstances.)
A more likely example would be a family court considering the probate laws of that country when approving a divorce settlement (which might be what you’re getting at in the South American example.)
For example, Spanish law requires that all real estate located in Spain be administered in Spanish probate courts, regardless of the nationality of the deceased owner. Meanwhile, Florida (and every US jurisdiction) requires that the wills of Florida residents be probated in Florida courts. So you end up with parallel probate cases - one in Spain for the real property, one in Florida (or wherever) for everything else.
If John dies intestate, his Spanish vacation home goes through probate in Spain. His other stuff goes through probate in Florida. If his son then gets a divorce, the Florida court has to analyze whether the vacation home is marital property. Did Spanish law require that it descend on John Jr. and his wife, entitling her to share in the proceeds of a sale? Can’t reach that decision without considering the laws of Spain.
Would I be correct in assuming that they could not apply any part that conflicted with US law?
From the link:
I challenge anyone to refute that.
*"She said in warning, however, that “UNESCO starts with UN.” *
So does uninformed, unenlightened, uncultured ungulate.