The 2nd Amendment was written to calm fears about ending slavery

It can hardly be stated how seriously the issue of slavery was to the founding of this country. More than being an important part of much of the colonial economy (especially in the South), it was a deeply ingrained and fundamental part of society.

That was by necessity. Slavery is brutal, even at its best. The only way for a society to condone such brutality is to devote most of their energy to justifying it as an important and worthwhile endeavor. And despite how much the brutality has often been diminished in revisionist history, slavery is such an inherently abusive institution that the people who engaged in it were obsessed with subjugating their slaves and maintaining order, since resistance was inevitable. Runaways and rebellions were a constant threat, as was the risk that people who saw the obvious wickedness in the system would subvert it from a distance.

Point being, the advocates for slavery were terrified of two things: That their slaves would revolt and kill them all; and that outsiders would grow disgusted by their institution, ride in, and overthrow the whole thing.

It is in this context that the constitution must be read if it is to be understood. And it is in this context that one can observe the many ways that the constitution pacified these fearful slavers while simultaneously being so aghast at the horrors of the institution that it is never explicitly mentioned:

W<script id=“gpt-impl-0.383024476718276” src=“https://securepubads.g.doubleclick.net/gpt/pubads_impl_124.js”></script>hat if slaves run away to free soil? Article IV, Section 2 requires runaway slaves (I’m sorry, I meant persons “held to Service or Labour”) to remain slaves, no matter where in the country they end up. (“No person held to Service or Labour in one State, under the Laws thereof, escaping into another, shall, in Consequence of any Law or Regulation therein, be discharged from such Service or Labour, But shall be delivered up on Claim of the Party to whom such Service or Labour may be due”)

What if abolitionists want to choke off the supply? Article I, Section 9 prevents Congress from outlawing the importation of slaves (I’m sorry, I meant “such Persons”) for 21 years (“The Migration or Importation of such Persons as any of the States now existing shall think proper to admit, shall not be prohibited by the Congress prior the Year one thousand eight hundred and eight, but a tax or duty may be imposed on such importation, not exceeding ten dollars for each Person.”)

What if the slaves rebel? Article I, Section 8 ensures Congress the power to quash slave rebellions (I’m sorry, I meant “Insurrections”). (“The Congress shall have the Power…To provide for calling forth the Militia to execute the Laws of the Union, suppress Insurrections and repel Invasions).

It is with this backdrop that I invite you to consider the Bill of Rights. While we think of the first 10 Amendments as important individual rights, they were not necessarily thought that way when they were first proposed. Sure, some individual liberties were protected. But in many cases states already preserved those rights for their people. More broadly, the Bill of Rights was an appeasement to skeptical states that their sovereignty was not being trampled upon by a federal government too reflective of the recently defeated monarchy.

Thus, we have amendments like 9 and 10 which, although relatively obscure and underappreciated today, are assurances to States of their important role in American governance (so, too, Amendment 11, ratified in 1791, which also concerned state sovereignty).

I submit that the 2nd Amendment is a similar assurance to the States of their authority, and specifically the ability of slave states to maintain their horrible practice. You just need to read between the lines and remember that slavery was never going to be explicitly discussed in the Constitution, even while it was the most important issue settled by the document.

The Constitution had already made promises to try to assure the slavers that the federal government would resist their obvious treachery and not become a beacon of abolitionism. But what if the Federal government simply looked the other way and didn’t rescue a state subjected to slave uprisings? Or what if the Federal government finally grew so disgusted with this despicable scourge and decided to eradicate it once and for all?

The 2nd Amendment was the promise that this wouldn’t, or couldn’t happen.

“A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a Free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.”

Militia – as reflected elsewhere in the Constitution, this is specific to a state-level military force. The amendment is affirming the right of states to have their own armed enforcers.

Security – this is a euphemism for preventing or stopping slave revolts or uprisings. Remember, the authors of the constitution used coded language to refer to slaves and slave institutions. So “security” is about keeping slaves subjugated.

Free – In the perverted language of slavery, “free” is a reference to the ability of a state to preserve slavery. A free state is a state free to maintain slavery even if the federal government has other designs.

Basically, the 2nd Amendment is a promise to the slave states that their ability to keep and maintain slavery (which was always done by maintaining a constant threat of violence) will not be subverted (the Civil War, of course, being a generation away).

“Originalists” may want to gloss over the words at the beginning of the amendment and just say that it ensures the right to own a gun. But, the 2nd Amendment (like the rest of the Bill of Rights) was a sale job to get the Constitution ratified. The “mere precatory language” at the beginning of the amendment is telling us, in admittedly obscure wording, that slavery is the cost of governance.

[Note: I am not suggesting that the 2nd amendment should not provide a right to own a gun; I believe it does, as the meaning of the amendment has come to be understood. That is separate from what it originally meant.]

You might want to check you link. I don’t know where the hell it takes you!

But I just wanted to ask if you read about this last week in the Annotated Constitution that was published in the Sunday New York Times (July2 edition). The author of proposed that idea as well, although not so much for fear of ending slavery, but as a way of ensuring that Southerners could keep slaves under control.

I can’t find a link to it, but here’s The Daily Kos’s article about it.

He also states that the Founders did not add anything about an individual’s right to buy and own guns. He says that would be like noting that we had the right to breathe. Of course individual citizens could buy guns.

Highly doubt it for several reasons.

1st. The colonies just finished up a shooting war with the English and were not sure if they would come back. If that was so they need what…“A well armed militia” just as the 2nd Amendment states.

2nd. On the other side of the 13 Colonies, that is the western side there was the great unknown out there. They knew Indian tribes were out there, and they knew the new colonies would westward expand. Best to allow folks heading out that way be well armed.

3rd. A police force for protection was non existent back then. Basically in those days you protected yourself. There were a lot of rural communities and a lot of people in those rural communities who lived in the outskirts and alone with no neighbors. How they to protect themselves in those times ?

4th. How do you think they would find food to eat back in the late 1700’s ? Well for many people you went out and shot game, that is how. Need arms to do that.

As I skimmed the OP it struck me as some dreamed up current day theory without a basic understand of how life actually was back then. Now a person can make an argument that the average person should not have fire arms. That is a modern day argument to make in 2017. Back in 1776 you would have been judged the local village idiot for advocating such a policy.

Yes. Reading commentary from outside the argument (I’ve lived outside the USA for many years), this is the standard view. The purpose of the well-regulated militia is to support slave rights, in the case that armed organisation is required to do so, if the federal government refuses to provide military support to do so.

It got into the constitution because the slave state representatives feared that a federal army might not intervene in a dispute between black residents of a state and white residents of the same state.

But that doesn’t mean that all people thought it was /only/ or even /mostly/ about slaves. Or that having a state militia independent of the federal army is /only/ useful for supressing black outlaws: cf. civilian navigation aids are used by the military, and military navigation aids are used by civilians.

It /might/ mean those things. /Perhaps/ the only meaning it ever had was about slaves. But I’ve not read that argument: It seems more likely to me that it looked to most people not directly involved as a generically good/harmless thing to have in the constitution.

It wasn’t just slaves. We wanted to be able to kill Indians too.

Well, of course everything in the antebellum slave South has to be seen through the prism of slavery (and for that matter, at the time of the adoption of the U.S. Constitution, slavery had not yet become a purely regional issue, as it still persisted in a number of states outside of the South). And of course the (increasingly regionalized) interest of slave owners was important in shaping the national government.

All that said, there was a long-standing English idea of a “right to keep and bear arms” and, in spite of this statement:

this idea of a “right to keep and bear arms” was repeatedly expressed in charters and constitutions, usually as part of a “bill of rights” (and often in more clearly individualistic language than in the Second Amendment). A number of individual states in both the North and South guaranteed a right to keep and bear arms; and in the antebellum North (and Midwest), several state constitutions simultaneously prohibited slavery, and protected the right of the people to keep and bear arms:

The 1777 Constitution of Vermont (which became a de facto independent republic for fourteen years) prohibited slavery, but also provided “That the people have a right to bear arms for the defence of themselves and the State; and, as standing armies, in the time of peace, are dangerous to liberty, they ought not to be kept up; and that the military should be kept under strict subordination to, and governed by, the civil power” (Chapter I, Article XV).

The 1803 Constitution of Ohio prohibited slavery (Article XIII, section 2) and sought to entrench that prohibition beyond even the ordinary power of amendment to the state constitution (Article VII, section 5), but also provided “That the people have a right to bear arms for the defense of themselves and the State; and as standing armies in time of peace are dangerous to liberty, they shall not be kept up: and that the military shall be kept under strict subordination to the civil power” (Article VIII, section 20).

The 1816 Constitution of Indiana banned slavery (7th section, Article VII) but also provided “That the people have a right to bear arms for the defence of themselves, and the state; and that the military shall be kept in strict subordination to the civil power” (Article I, Section 20).

The 1835 Constitution of Michigan prohibited slavery (Article XI: “Neither slavery nor involuntary servitude shall ever be introduced into this state, except for the punishment of crimes of which the party shall have been duly convicted”) but also provided that “Every person has a right to bear arms for the defense of himself and the state” (Article I, Clause 13).

The 1843 Constitution of Rhode Island banned slavery (Article I, Section 4: “Slavery shall not be permitted in this state”) and also provided that “The right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed” (Article I, Section 22).

So, to say that the concerns of slave owners were one of the motivations for the adoption of the Second Amendment is one thing; but Americans in all areas of the country clearly saw the right to keep and bear arms (often connected with a distrust of “standing armies” and a preference for a militia of ordinary citizens for defense) as something worth protecting, right alongside freedom of speech, the free exercise of religion, or trial by jury.

In summary, no. The philosophy of the right to bear arms precedes the US and American slavery, the anti-Federalist papers argued for such a right on the basis that it was to prevent tyranny and genocide (and it was in response to the anti-Federalist papers that the Bill of Rights was proposed), and the Bill of Rights were largely accepted in bulk by James Madison, not argued over contentiously like the Constitution itself had been. I’ll also note that several states had right-to-arms conditions in their state Constitutions at the time, and this was not unique to the South.

http://www2.law.ucla.edu/volokh/beararms/statecon.htm

Maine: 1819
Massachusetts: 1780
Pennsylvania: 1790
Rhode Island: 1842
Vermont: 1777
etc.

The guy I was referencing distinguished between “guns” and “arms”. To him, “arms” is a military term and refers to guns to be stored in an armory to be used for military purposes. A gun you had in your home was just a gun. No one would dispute your right to have a gun.

I have no idea how correct he is, I’m just stating what I read.

I once read a book that offered a unique interpretation of the Second Amendment. The author argued that it guaranteed every citizen the right to military service.

That may seem like an unusual right but the author pointed out there was amble historical precedent of people being prohibited or restricted from military service; women, blacks, Native Americans, gays. And there are numerous examples from other countries. The author went on to note that the groups that were restricted from military service also generally had other political rights restricted as well. There’s a historical linkage between serving in the military and having full citizenship.

That said, while it’s an interesting idea I do not believe it was the intent of the Second Amendment.

I could see slavery fitting into the mishmash of conflicting motivations and interests of the founders, but the main reason for the 2nd has always seemed fairly obvious to me - it was to ensure that militias could be hastily formed for whatever reason and reduce the need for a standing army, broadly seen as a potential tool of oppression.

That particular reason has been obsolete for quite some time.

I came here to post all the other state constitutional guarantees of the right of the people to keep and bear arms, but **MEBuckner **and Sage Rat seem to have that handled, so I guess I’ll just add that I find it a rather twisted view of the Constitution to claim that slavery “was the most important issue settled by the document”.

I wonder, Moriarty, do you see some slavery dog-whistle hidden in the rest of the Bill of Rights? Or just the 2nd Amendment?

Like breathe, of course it is the right of citizens to own guns. The military however…gotta make sure they have their rights! Can’t risk having the military be de-gunned by the gubmint!

That is to say, I am failing to see the logic. Who fears that the military will be disarmed? Disbanded, perhaps, and made illegal like in the Japanese Constitution. But disarmed? What use is a weapon-free military?

Not really. The outside view is that the “well-regulated militia” was a substitute for a regular army. They were very afraid of “tyrants” at the time and regualr armies are the tools of tyrants.
What they went for was a people’s army (the militia) and the regular army was just a token force. I believe it was only around 300 men strong around 1780.

The militia, not “the military”. Militia were state run and, as already noted, were intended as an alternative to a federally managed, standing army in peacetime. In that case, the federal government could indeed disarm a state militia.

Pretty sure that in the 18th century ‘guns’ referred exclusively to what we’d call cannons.

If you are going to attribute motivations for an action, the obvious thing I would want to hear would be the evidence. The govt slavers were not shy when talking about the technical aspects of their endeavor. Why would they cloak the second amendment in such language and why have you provided no quotes that support your claim?

People back then weren’t exactly shy to discuss the merits of slavery and racism. If this theory had any merit then you should be able to find someone in the historical record advocating for the second amendment on this basis. Since you didn’t do that, and as pointed up thread the history of the second actually contradicts your theory, I can’t help but think this is a rather blatant attempt to villify the pro-gun argument.

And as a Canadian outsider, this is not a “standard view” I’ve ever heard before.

Eta: ninja’d

I totally agree. Reading the OP made me think of the recent alt-right progaganda nonsense that turned a DC pizza parlor into a child sex ring headquarters, because “cheese pizza” equals “CP” equals “child porn.” Sure, it all makes sense if you buy into the alt-definition of various words. But I need more evidence than “if you read a certain word to mean this other thing then you have cracked the code!”

Is there a single Framer who can be quoted as exposing the supposed link between maintaining slavery and the Second Amendment?

Gary Wills is the guy who wrote the NYT article I referenced in my first post. I never heard of him before, but you may have. I don’t think he was talking about code words, and he did also mention defense against Indians, but his analysis was something I had not heard before.

The blurb he wrote was only a few paragraphs and I don’t remember him citing any actual sources. It was an interesting read, but it sounded more like an attempt to see things from a different perspective rather than as a definitive “this is the way it was” analysis.

On the face of it, it seems odd that residents of the colonial-era South, worried that the federal government might declare slaves to be free citizens, would seek to enshrine into fundamental law a right for free citizens to own guns.

And as many of you may know, the gun lobby argues conversely that gun control laws have historical roots in racist fears of an uprising by black Americans.