So I was reading the Spanish Linguistic thread and I started thinking. I am currently living in Germany now and I am of course learning German. But what really is strange to me is how the words in German are formed. As you may know it is very possible in German to add on prefixes and suffixes to most words and change the meaning. Although it isn’t always possible it is very widely done. This is much more acceptable than in English with George W. Bush’s new word “misunderestimate.” Now if you think about that word, we all know that its wrong (As in not being in the dictionary as a defined word). But if you think about it to misunderestimate does make sense. To incorrectly underestimate seems like it could be a word. Anyway this is just a sidebar. On to the real question.
If you take English for example we have many latin words from Norman french and actually directly from latin as well. For instance. “to express oneself” “to impress someone” to “suppress.”
Now I am not a scholar of latin, and this is a little more educated than a WAG, but I think I am correct in saying that these are all compisite words like in latin.
ex/press “to push out” German is “Ausdrücken”
im/press “to push in” German is “beeindrücken”
sup/press “to push down” German is “ünterdrücken”
A little german translation for those who don’t know. drücken is the german word for press or push and aus, ein and ünter, are the german words for out, in, and under, respectively.
My question is how is it that these words got to be so similar to the latin words. How did these construcitons manage to turn out the same with in both languages? Now there are many words that have this same similarity but obviously not all of them and not even the majority of them, but most of the time it does work like that. I have another question as well. For those of you that know latin, did there ever exist the ability to use prefixes and suffixes the way that they are used in German? I know that they both belong to the family of Indo-European languages, but I have a hard time believing that this is the main reason. Was there ever some kind of influence involved between Latin and German that they decided to use latin words, but to translate them instead? For instance Germans use the word “Fernseher” for television, which is either a compisite of greek and latin words (i am not sure but i think that tele is greek). They both mean seeing far. Is this what happened a long time ago with the latin words? Of course now German is very common to use English words.
If there are any native speakers of German here I would like to ask a question to them as well. When you speak German words are you at least conscious on some level that when you use the composite words that you can break down the component parts? There are so many words that have “sprechen” for example as a root. Besprechen in english means to discuss, but is there some sort of mental thing going on when you categorize words “nicht absprechen sondern besprechen”
Maybe its like for an English speaker to use “to talk up” “to talk down” “to talk about” “to talk with” all mean different things. When I have learned Spanish I noticed that there really doesn’t seem to be this use of other kinds of words or suffixes or prefixes that modify the word outside of the latin ones. They all seem to have been set in stone then and from that point memorized as seperate entities to themselves.
Spanish examples
“To look for” buscar
“to look at” mirar
" to look" ver
Another point. Seperable prefix verbs in German seem a lot like English verbs that change their meaning in relation to a certain preposition (look at, for, around, after, etc…) you could contrue them in a way that sounds German and makes some sense. “Afterlooking, aroundlooking, forlooking, and atlooking” sounds really strange in an Orwellian kind of way, no?
I know I am more likely to be conscious of the core parts of German words because I have to memorize them somehow and sometimes the easiest way to memorize it is look at the component parts and make sense of them. Even when they aren’t an exact translation of a Latin word, they do often make some sense.
This makes me wonder sometimes if the infinitive of German and the -ing form of verbs in english are somehow related. In German you can say, “Lesen ist mir entspannend” Lit. “Reading is, to me, relaxing” But would you want to say “To read is to me relaxing?” No you wouldn’t. Of course there are differences where you put the “to me/mir” in german or english, if you take that out it is even clearer. “Reading is relaxing/Lesen ist entspannend.” What if you wanted to say, “Lesen ist mir entspannend” in english? You would probably say “It is realaxing to me, to read” A literal translation in German would be “Es ist entspannend mir zu lesen”
That’s where you see this “to read” and “zu lesen” come up. Zu is the german equivalent of “to” in German but it is never used to form the German infinitive like in English. Zu in german is pronounced somewhat like too in english but with an “s” thrown in as in “tsoo”
Well, anyway. I thought I would share these thoughts with you and raise some questions. I wondered if I should put this in GD, but I believe this is the right place. If there are general factual answers to my observations/quesions, then I suppose it will stay in GQ but if it is a debate then so be it. I didn’t know where to put it because I am not sure what kind of answers I’ll get.