Theodicies in the Bible and other scriptures

I am interested in passages in the Bible which attempt to explain the existence of evil and the suffering of the innocent. Obviously, there is Job (although it’s debatable whether there really is a theodicy offered in Job.) I am particularly interested in passages where evil is described as a tool God uses to test the strength of people’s faith and their commitment to God.

If there are examples of this in other scriptures (Book of Mormon, the Qur’an, etc.), please feel free to chime in. Using my concordance, I think I have exhausted the Qur’an, but really, any help is welcome.

There is no scriptural basis to support there are "passages where evil is described as a tool God uses to test the strength of people’s faith and their commitment to God. "

Hebrews 12:6: “For whom the Lord loveth he chasteneth, and scourgeth every son whom he receiveth.” (But the verse does not actually explain why.)

In which scriptures?

I dunno. I have found some passages that seem to suggest this theodicy. For example:

I’ll have to drag my butt over to the library and see what the Interpreter’s Bible has to say about this passage.

The passage from 1 Peter you quoted is similar to this one from James:

Not too much later, James says

This and other passages suggest the distinction: God does not cause the evil for the sake of the good that may result (e.g. testing of faith), but God does allow the evil.

Here’s one of the sort you might be looking for:

It’s not clear to me whether, in saying “this happened so that the work of God might be displayed in his life,” Jesus is answering the question of “Why was this man born blind?” or dismissing the question as being the wrong thing to ask. (i.e. the appropriate response to suffering like this is not to figure out whom to blame, but to respond to it and heal it.) At any rate, this is one instance where Jesus is directly asked about the reason for (a particular instance of) suffering.

There’s the story of Joseph, where Joseph is sold as a slave to Egypt. At the end of his story, he explains to his brothers:

From the Mormon perspective, “good” would not have any meaning outside the context of the dichotomy of “good and evil.”

In the bible, either OT or NT.

What do you think about the passage from 1 Peter I quoted above?

I fail to get the sense of this;if God knows all things then he knew before a person was born if he or she would pick evil, and He should have also known who would commit to Him so the testing is unnecessary!

Monavis

Using the, in this case more accurate KJV-

  1. Jesus answered, Neither hath this man sinned, nor his parents: but that the works of God should be made manifest in him.
  2. I must work the works of him that sent me, while it is day: the night cometh, when no man can work.
    I have read another view which reads the passage this way…

Jesus answered “Neither has this man sinned nor his parents. But, that the
works of God should be made manifest in him, I must work the works of him that sent me, while it is day: the night cometh, when no man can work.”

SO Jesus may well be saying “It’s not a matter of who sinned or why this happened. But to reveal God’s work here, I will do what I was sent to do…”

Basically, there are a variety of explanations for evil in the Bible- sometimes it’s a test of faith to be endured, or an attack by the Devil or evil people to be resisted,
or a natural calamity to be worked through. The one clear message of the Bible regarding evil is, regardless of why or how it happens, God is ultimately in charge & will make everything right, and can redeem the situation so as to bring greater good out of the worst evil.

I agree it’s not a very good theodicy. But whenever I teach the problem of evil in my philosophy classes, it’s the first thing out of my students’ mouths. So I am seeing what scriptural basis there is for this (and other) theodicies.

Right; I’m just having trouble finding out any places where these explanations are offered. For example, in Job, all of Job’s friends’ theodicies are rejected, and at the end, God offers Job no reason for his suffering.

Is the syntax in the original language this awkward? :confused:

God’s not the one who needs to know the answer.

I dunno, but I looked at several different translations and they all have the awkward phrasing. That’s why I need to drag my carcass over to the library and have a gander at the Interpreter’s Bible. I figure others have done the hard work of parsing the phrase, and I will reap the bounty of their labor.

This one touches on why evil is allowed, a refining process:

These other Revelation passages come to mind:

I’ve always wondered if God suspended his own nature when he ordered the murder of Isaac. Was this a test? One of the more modern philosophers dealt with this issue from the Bible and gave it a name. Do you know what I’m talking about?