Why does the pronunciation of "offense" change depending on the context?

If you said, “Michigan has a great offense this year,” you’d pronounce it OFF-ense.

If you said, “No offense, but…”, you say “off-ENSE.”

Why does this change occur?

Because they’re homographs.

*tear
*read
*dove

Yeah but even in those two different contexts the words have roughly the same meaning. “To attack you,” basically.

“Yes I read it,” and “Did you read it,” have roughly the same meaning.

It’s worth noting that the differences in the pronunciation of “defense” are, in the English-speaking world, peculiar to North America.

e.g.

Michigan has a poor DE-fense

The Senate approved an increase in de-FENSE spending.
In countries like Australia and the UK, the sporting term is pronounced the same way as the military term. Although they also spell it “defence.”

ETA: the same probably applies to Offense/Offence, except that in games like rugby and soccer, the more common term is “attack” rather than “offence.”

This gives a name to the phenomenon, but it doesn’t really explain it, does it? Presumably both usages of “offense” evolved from the same root, after all.

Then again, Argent Towers, how can any pronunciation be “explained” as anything more than, “that’s how people say it”?

I will note that in the US, there can be regional variation as to whether the first syllable of a word is stressed: “UM-brel-la” vs. “um-BREL-la,” or “IN-sur-ance” vs. “in-SUR-ance.” Maybe the sport-related pronunciation of “offense” evolved regionally like that, and then caught on more generally.

address

protest

desert

Some Canadians say OH-fense, particularly hockey coaches.

The stress usually changes depending on the part of speech. In this case, noun versus verb. Take a look at most of the other stress changes and you’ll see that this pattern is true except for fringe cases like your second example.

In your first example, “Michigan has a great offense this year,” offense is used as a noun. “No offense, but…” is a shortened version of a phrase that preserves the accent used for the verb form.

But why would it use the verb form? The phrase is a shortening of “I don’t mean to cause offense”, where “offense” means “an instance of being offended”.

[deleted - just repeated what mhendo said…]

I hear offence and defense with the first syllable accented mostly in sports-related contexts.

My assumption is that this preference was popularized by folks more concerned with making it clear about which fence they were referring to than any concern about the purity of language.

“Johnny, you gave 110% on DEfence but you didn’t bring your “A” game for OFFense.”

This is not the same thing. In the first phrase you are using the past tense. In the second, the auxiliary verb “did” is the past tense so the word “read” is the present tense. In this case, the past tense and present tense of the word are spelled the same but pronounced differently.

In the OP, the word is used as a noun in both cases.

For homographs, it is common for verbs to take the emphasis on the second syllable and nouns on the first:

contract
produce
record

I think there was even a thread on that some time back, but I can’t seem to get Search to work at the moment.

*does (the verb)
*does (the animals)