Or were they? Y’all will have to forgive me if I ask stupid questions. This is a part of history that I’m not good at. I’ve only recently been sniffing at it in any kind of detail.
The early Islamic armies defeated Byzantine and Sassanid armies very impressively, but the impression I get is that how and why is at best unclear and at worst something of a mystery. This bugs me. I can tell you why the Macedonian phalanx was good. I can tell you why the Roman legions were good. Same thing for horse archers, mounted knights, guns, tanks, whatever. But I can’t seem to find a great explanation anywhere for what the Arabs had going on. This is especially annoying since they seem to come so much right the heck out of nowhere, jumping suddenly from not being on anyone’s radar to overrunning empires.
Was it simply a matter of exploiting weakness? The Byzantines and Sassanids had fought each other to exhaustion not long before this, most notably in the War of 602–628. The Sassanids, especially, seem to have been in a state of internal semi-collapse at this point. I’m not super happy with this as an explanation, though. It’s not like the Arabs walked in unopposed. There was a lot of fighting, and the Arabs came out on top. Also, there were other players on the board. For instance, the Western Turkic Khaganate had fought with the Byzantines against the Sassanids in the aforementioned War 602–628. Why were the Arabs the ones to take advantage, and not someone else?
Maybe the Arabs had God on their side. I would feel better about an explanation in terms of strategy, tactics, equipment or manpower, though.